1.The ideal time to on-board core team members is when the project charter is being written.
True
2.All project teams progress uniformly through five stages of team development.
False
3.Synergy results in a team having a collective capability that exceeds the sum of individual capabilities.
True
4.The “relationship” topics within team ground rules, such as “discuss openly and protect confidentiality” and “avoid misunderstandings”, should eliminate the need for the team to address how to handle conflict.
False
5.A project manager understands the importance of understanding individual motives, and takes the time to ask each team member what he or she personally wants from being involved in the project.
True
6. A project manager’s referent power is described as persuading others based upon giving them something.
False
7. The adoption of specific ground rules that specify acceptable behaviors by project team members can improve working relationships, effectiveness, and communication.
True
8. When a project team member is not performing, rewards may not prove as effective as a coercive approach that threatens the team member with undesired consequences.
True
9. Conflict over ideas on how to proceed with a project can lead to more creative approaches.
True
10. The negotiation process involves several steps such as: preparing for negotiation; knowing your walk-away point; and working towards a common goal.
True
11. It is argued that project teams progress through five stages of team development. Which of the following sequences best represents this progression?
forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
12. During which stage of team development do team members attempt to jockey for power, ask many questions and establish dubious goals?
storming
13. Agile teams require motivated members with a higher level of commitment, and agile teams have all of the following desirable traits EXCEPT:
Argue about everything
14. Which two project team success factors have shown the strongest correlation to successful project performance as perceived by senior managers?
Stimulating work environment and opportunity for team and individual recognition
15. All of the following are among the methods project managers can use to develop individual and team capabilities EXCEPT:
utilize coercive powers
16. All of the following represent common methods for making decisions on contemporary project teams EXCEPT:
The steering team reviews the project data and makes the decision
17. Frequently, project managers lack legitimate power based upon position and instead resort to persuading others based upon personal relationships. This type of power is known as:
referent power
18. Which of the following styles of handling conflict is most appropriate whenever there is enough time, trust can be established, the issue is important to both sides and buy-in is needed?
collaborating / problem solving
19. Which of these is NOT among the common task-related sources of project conflict?
personalities
20. All of the following are among the steps of the negotiation process EXCEPT:
use “good cop / bad cop” technique
21.A project manager must use effective communications to set and manage expectations of all stakeholders as well as to ensure that project work is completed properly and on time.
True
22. A stakeholder is anyone who will use, will be affected by or could impact the project.
True
23. Stakeholders include people who have their routines disrupted by the project.
True
24. Project managers should purposefully plan and carry out relationship-building activities with stakeholders that lead to respect and trust.
True
25. The communications management plan is finalized during project planning, and should only be changed through a formal change control process.
False
26. Common purposes for project communications include status reporting and efforts to obtain approval of project outputs.
True
27. Contemporary project communications typically include both push methods such as blogs, and pull methods such as e-mail.
False
28. The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) process improvement model can be applied specifically to improving project meetings.
True
29. An issue log is a document that identifies the specific issues that must be resolved before a particular project management meeting adjourns.
False
30. During the Manage Communications process, project managers must continuously monitor relationships, communications, and lessons learned in order to manage stakeholder expectations.
False
31. ________ is the process of the project team communicating and working with stakeholders to satisfy their needs (and additional desires, when possible), handle issues quickly and encourage active stakeholder participation throughout.
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
32. Stakeholders include all of the following people EXCEPT:
those who will not be impacted by the project
33.Which of these is NOT one of the three methods of communication that will be documented in a communication plan?
Virtual methods
34. Project stakeholders can be prioritized based upon their level of power, legitimacy and urgency plus a number of additional criteria that might include:
impact
35. The stakeholder register information can be used to evaluate the interests of different stakeholder groups by performing a _______ analysis to identify where there may be common areas of interest between the groups.
WIIFT (what’s-in-it-for-them)
36. In the Plus-Delta method of evaluating project meetings, the “delta” column is used for team members to offer their opinion about one aspect of the meeting that ________.
Was poor and could be avoided (changed) in future meetings
37. Was poor and could be avoided (changed) in future meetings
15 minutes or less
38. In order to plan for a project meeting, project managers should develop an agenda. Which of the statements below is NOT accurate with respect to a project meeting agenda?
the agenda should only be shared with senior management.
39. A situation that requires a decision to be made, but one that the team that cannot make now, usually due to needing more information or time, is called a(n) _____:
issue
40. Once the project is underway, the project manager and team need to manage communications by doing all of the following activities EXCEPT:
The customer who pays for the project is always the actual person who uses the project deliverables, and as the end user they fully understand their needs.
41. Which of these is an example of an internal stakeholder who would be impacted by the project process?
Competing Projects
42. One of these is NOT a criterion to consider when prioritizing stakeholders:
Attitude
43. When should the relationship building between the project manage / other core team members and important stakeholders occur?
Throughout the project
44. The old saying “What’s in it for me?” describes what each stakeholder wants, and there are a number of things that can be done to build a relationship between stakeholders and the core team. Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build these relationships?
Carefully review every communication prior to sharing it with stakeholders to make sure that it is politically correct.
45. Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build relationships with the core team?
Defer to the project manager for problem solving and decision making
46. One of these is NOT an important and necessary function of communications from stakeholders:
Reporting project progress.
47. Which of these is NOT a reason why effective communications to stakeholders are necessary?
Authorizing work.
48. Clarence and his team are working on a high profile project, and want to be sure that they are proactive about managing stakeholder expectations. What document can they refer to in order to understand their stakeholders’ assumptions?
Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
49. What are the characteristics of “pull” communications?
Communications are posted either on paper or in electronic form and stakeholders need to take the initiative to receive the communication.
50. All of these are types of project communications timing schedules EXCEPT:
Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA)
51. Which of the answers below is NOT information to be contained in the communications matrix?
Where will project meetings take place?
52. It is important to capture lessons learned in a knowledge database because _____________:
The organization will benefit from the capture and re-use of knowledge developed during the project.
53. The second-to-last item on a standard project team meeting agenda is _________:
Meeting summary
54. Which of these is NOT one of the three questions that each team member answers in an Agile standup meeting?
What issues they’ve encountered during this iteration and how they’ve resolved them
55. The project scope is the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result with the required features and functions.
True
56.The priority of the product in agile is more significant than in traditional project management, as the outcome, or product, will drive the elaboration of the project.
True
57. The project scope statement establishes the project boundaries by stating what features and work elements are included (in scope) and which are excluded (out of scope).
True
58. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is normally developed by listing deliverables – major deliverables first and then progressively smaller ones until the team feels that every deliverable has been identified.
True
59.A Work Breakdown Structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective.
False
60. A WBS dictionary is a document that defines each of the terms used in the project scope statement.
True
61. When a project team needs to construct a WBS, it needs to include in its planning team a subject matter expert (SME) who understands how each segment of the work will be accomplished.
True
62. A “top-down” approach to creating a WBS is typically used when a project is unique and different from previous projects.
False
63. It is important to assign a unique name and a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure.
True
64. Once the plan baseline has been approved and the project is underway, project teams deal with change by establishing and using a change control system to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule.
True
65. All of the following elements should be included in a project scope statement EXCEPT:
names of the project team members
66. On agile projects, the scope definition begins with :
large chunks of work, or features
67. It is helpful to list requirements and supporting information in a requirements traceability matrix. When requirements are complete, they should meet all of these criteria EXCEPT:
Assigned to a team member who will be the requirement owner
68. The method of dividing the project scope into many parts that, when combined, would constitute the project deliverable is called _____:
69. A _______ is the approved project plan mainly consisting of scope, schedule, and cost that is not normally altered unless a formal change control request is approved for modifying these plans.
baseline.
70. Which of the following is NOT a format that is typically used to represent a Work Breakdown Structure?
Requirements Traceability Matrix
71. The overall project is considered to be the first level of the WBS. All of the following methods can be used to organize the second level of the WBS EXCEPT:
Organized by activities and tasks
72. This technique is an iterative process that identifies and defines the work to be completely accomplished in the near term, and plans the future work at a higher level.
Rolling wave planning.
73. The work component at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed is called the ______:
work package
74. A _________ is a written request or formal proposal to propose changes to any project planning component such as a document, project deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and time).
75. What is the first step in developing a project scope management plan?
Identify stakeholders
76. All of these are tasks that comprise the “define scope” process EXCEPT:
Identify work packages.
77. For a construction project, the house is the _______ deliverable, and the how-to instructions are the _____ deliverable.
Product, project
78. Scope definition is a critical part of project planning. Which of these PMBOK Knowledge Areas does NOT use the defined scope as the foundation for their planning processes?
Identify Stakeholders.
79. All of these could be common causes of scope creep EXCEPT:
The team defines project and product scope as well as exclusions, constraints and assumptions in a project scope statement
80.What does the acronym WBS stand for?
Work Breakdown Structure
81. All of these are advantages of using a WBS EXCEPT:
To ensure all dates assigned to schedule activities are within the overall project timeline
82. Which of these is NOT one of the three ways to organize a WBS?
The WBS is organized by PMBOK Knowledge Area
83. The lowest level of a WBS is known as a _________:
Work package.
84. A document that provides more information about each work package by documenting details about the associated deliverable, activity, scheduling information, person responsible, resources required, etc. is called a ________:
WBS Dictionary
85. The planning technique of identifying and defining the work to be accomplished in the near term completely, and planning the future work at a higher level, is called ___________:
Rolling Wave Planning
86. Uncontrolled change is known as:
Scope creep
87.The processes to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule is managed through _________:
Change control system
88. Which of these is NOT a typical section in a change request form?
Impact on other projects.
89. A ________ is the approved project plan for scope, schedule, and cost that is not altered unless a formal change request is approved.
Baseline
90. According to PMI, after planning schedule management, the next process in project time management is to ___________.
Define activities
91. In order to be useful as schedule building blocks, activities should have certain characteristics. Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics that an activity should have?
It is the element at the lowest level of the WBS and has a deliverable associated with it
92. What is another name for the Activity-on-Node (AON) network diagramming technique?
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
93. Which of these is NOT a typical situation for creating a project schedule milestone?
Time for weekly project meetings
94. The schedule activity that follows a predecessor activity, as determined by their logical relationship, is called a ________.
Successor activity
95.Which of these four most common types of logical dependencies would be represented by the situation “the carton must be sealed and labelled before the package can be shipped?”
Finish-to-start (FS)
96.Potential problems can occur with activity duration estimating when omissions are made. All of these are potential remedies for this problem EXCEPT:
Rolling wave planning
97. Which of these is NOT one of the actions that should be completed during the Two-Pass Method of determining the critical path?
List all of the paths through the network
98.If an activity on the critical path falls behind schedule, what effect will this have on the entire project?
It will increase the length of the entire project by the amount of schedule slippage for the activity
99. If a painted room must dry for four hours before work can continue, the result is a delay in the successor activity. The wait for paint to dry is an example of a __________.
Lag
100. A professor who always grades on a curve cannot finish scoring the midterm exams until all of the students have completed taking the test. What kind of relationship is this?
Finish-to-finish (FF)
101.Which of these is NOT an advantage of using Monte Carlo analysis for predicting a project schedule?
It uses three time estimates – Optimistic, Pessimistic, and Most Likely
102. A basic Gantt Chart can be helpful in project planning in all of these ways EXCEPT:
It shows predecessor-successor relationships, late start dates, etc.
103. A lead is a change in the logical relationship that results in the _____ of the successor activity.
Acceleration
104.______ is defined as “the amount of time a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of immediately following schedule activities.”
Free float
105. In addition to technical skills, a project manager must have _________ skills in order to successfully resource a project.
Behavioral
106.Why is it important to involve workers in the planning phase of a project when possible?
People are more likely to be enthusiastic about performing work they helped to plan
107.A Staffing Management Plan addresses all of the areas below EXCEPT:
How to record resource assignments in a project scheduling tool such as MS Project.
108.Near the end of the project, timing issues regarding team members must be addressed. Which of the answers below is NOT one of the three “r” end-of-project activities related to project team members?
Retrospective meetings with team members
109.RAM stands for:
Responsibility Assignment Matrix
110.Which of these is NOT one of the roles of key project stakeholders represented in a RACI Chart?
C = Control
111.Hector and his team were preparing a RACI chart for the major project work packages and activities. In each row they only assigned an “A” for Accountable to a single resource. Why did they feel it was necessary for only one person to be assigned the accountability for each activity?
Because if more than one person has accountability, it is too easy for them to blame each other when something goes wrong
112.What can a project manager do to determine if workers are overloaded?
Add the demands for each resource at each time period.
113.Whom should the project manager consult if there is a severe resource overload and they are considering alternative actions such as reducing the project scope, assigning activities to other workers, splitting activities, reordering activities or resource leveling?
The project sponsor
114.What will happen to a project’s schedule if there are resource overloads and the critical path is delayed?
The project’s schedule will slip only if the float / slack period for the noncritical activities is not enough to resolve the resource overload issue
115.In regard to resource leveling, why are noncritical path activities generally the first to be delayed?
Because they have available slack / float.
116.Which of these is NOT a technique for reducing the critical path and compressing a project’s schedule?
Perform a forward pass and a backward pass through the network
117.When crashing a project schedule, the two questions to be asked when deciding which activities to speed up are ________ and _________.
Which activities are on the critical path, and which critical path activity costs the least on a per-day basis to speed up?
118.In addition to predecessor-successor relationships, what does critical chain project management (CCPM) factor into its scheduling?
Calculations on resource availability
119.When using Reverse Phase Scheduling, the __________ develops the schedule.
Team
120.What type of costs do NOT depend on the size of the project?
Fixed costs
121.During which phase of a project life cycle do recurring costs typically occur?
Executing
122.Which of these is an example of an expedited cost?
Production work is halted in the factory due to lack of inventory, and management pays for overnight delivery of additional material.
123.__________ estimates are often used to seek initial project charter approval.
Order of Magnitude
124.Aisha, an experienced project manager, has successfully managed many new build-outs of office space for her east coast company. Her manager announced today that they will be expanding operations to the Midwest. The company had already signed a lease for 5,000 square feet of office space in Cincinnati, and the offices had to be up and running in 3 months. He asked Aisha for a cost estimate for this construction by the end of the day. How can she come up with a credible estimate so quickly?
Ask the manager questions about the new office space to understand the impacted departments that will be located there, the level of finishes desired, etc. then use the budgets of previous similar projects as a guideline.
125.Which of these methods of estimating can produce the most accurate estimate?
Bottom-up
126. Which of these is NOT an example of supporting detail pertaining to cost estimates?
Schedule milestones
127. Jim, a project manager for a manufacturing company, is responsible for getting bids for two sophisticated pieces of equipment that will be installed on the factory floor. He has distributed the detailed specifications to a number of vendors, and is waiting for the bid responses. When analyzing the vendor’s bids, Jim can do all of the following to determine if the vendor’s bid prices appear to be reasonable EXCEPT:
Implement activity-based costing.
128.__________ is defined as a formal, structured process that is aimed at increasing the value or productivity of a work element while minimizing the cost.
Value engineering
129.The time value of money is relevant to project management because:
Discounting the value of future revenue and cost streams enables better project decisions
130.During risk analysis for a routine project, ____ percent of money should be put into management reserves, while for an unusual project, ____ percent should be reserved.
5 percent, 30 percent
131.What is used to compare actual project spending with planned expenditures to determine if corrective action is needed?
Cost Baseline
132.A fixed cost is described as __________.
A cost that remains the same regardless of the size or volume of work.
133.An example of a nonrecurring cost is _________.
Developing a design that guides the team, once approved
134.Which of the scenarios below is NOT an example of an assumption that may arise when estimating the cost of direct labor?
Only in-house workers will be used.
135.The purpose of risk management is to eliminate all project risk.
False
136.When the impact of an event is negative, it is considered a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity.
False
137.The cost per risk for risks discovered early in the project is often more than the cost per risk for risks discovered late because there is more opportunity for the risk to impact several dimensions of the project.
False
138.When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning.
True
139.In Agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely risk management occurs during the planning of each subsequent iteration, in daily stand-up meetings, and in retrospectives at the end of each iteration.
True
140.The primary questions project teams use in qualitative risk analysis are “how likely is this risk to happen?”, and “if it does happen, how big will the impact be?”
True
141.Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
True
142.In some cases, project teams will elect to reduce a threat to a level that a sponsor and other stakeholders deem acceptable, rather than eliminate it completely.
True
143.Risk response strategies such as accept risk and research risk apply to both threats and opportunities.
True
144.Risk response strategy decisions should reflect a thorough understanding of the priorities that key stakeholders have for cost, schedule, scope, and quality.
True
145.A ________ presents a hierarchical organization of risks based on categories such as operational, strategic, finance, external, and project management.
Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)
146.All of the following criteria can be used to categorize project risks EXCEPT:
whether the risk is a known known
147.Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?
Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.
148.All of the following describe the appropriate application of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis in project management EXCEPT:
Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible.
149.Which of the following describes how the team uses a cause-and-effect diagram to support project risk analysis?
The team lists the risk as the “effect” in a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones
150.Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in Figure 10-1. Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses?
C – IS resources are spread too thin
151.Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques is used to determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project, with results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram?
Sensitivity Analysis
152.All of the following describe an appropriate application of Plan Risk Responses in project management EXCEPT:
Responses should be created for every identified project risk, regardless of the risk score.
153.All of the following are among the classic risk response strategies EXCEPT:
share a threat
154.Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to research a threat or an opportunity?
construct a prototype to learn more about a candidate solution
155.A negative impact is known as a (n) ______, while a positive impact is known as a (n) __________.
Threat, Opportunity
156.Who should be involved in identifying potential risks for a project?
Everyone
157.Which of these is NOT one of the typical project success measures?
Quality Improvements
158.Risks are typically discovered during which stage(s) of a project?
Initiating, Planning, Executing and Closing
159.Relative to the project life cycle, when is the cost per risk discovered typically highest?
Closing
160.What does a SWOT Analysis examine?
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats
161.A _________ is an analytical technique to ascertain the fundamental reason or reasons that affect one or more variances, defects or risks.
Root Cause Analysis
162.All of these are ways of categorizing project risks EXCEPT:
Who identified the risk.
163.A key supplier of materials for your project has not been returning your calls or responding to your e-mails. This is an example of a ________, which indicates that a risk is likely to occur.
Trigger condition
164.During which risk planning process is each risk assigned a probability and impact score?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
165.The risk factor of each risk, determined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, is derived by ______ the probability and the consequence (impact).
Multiplying
166.What type of risk analysis is NOT required on all projects?
Quantitative Risk Analysis
167.A Fortune 100 company is about to undertake a $30 million construction project to build a new office building. As a condition of hiring a general contractor to build the property, they require the contractor to secure a performance bond to guarantee their work and performance under this construction contract. This is an example of _______ project risk.
Transferring
168.All of the following information is typically contained in the risk register EXCEPT:
Date risk identified
169.In the risk register, why should one person be designated as the “owner” of the risk?
So that they can be responsible for determining if it’s about to be triggered, and implementing the strategy
170. Crosby, a well known quality management thought leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them.
True
171.Stakeholder satisfaction consists of identifying all stakeholders and understanding the stakeholders’ ultimate quality goals using a structured process to determine relevant quality standards.
True
172.DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly.
True
173.Just as total quality dramatically changed general management in the 1990s, agile is dramatically changing project management in the 2010s.
True
174.The purpose of process control is to be able to have confidence that outputs are predictable.
True
175.The quality management plan defines the acceptable level of quality, which is typically defined by the customer, and describes how the project will ensure this level of quality in its deliverables and work processes.
True
176.If necessary, the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer.
False
177.Process Analysis is a step-by-step breakdown of the phases of a process, used to determine the inputs, outputs, and operations that take place during each phase.
True
178.A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a “Plan-Do-Check-Act” (PDCA) model.
False
179.The formality of a kick-off meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.
True
180.Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. Which of the following items is NOT part of Juran’s Quality Trilogy?
work to identify root causes, not just symptoms
181.All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT:
Team Learning
182.DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches?
Six Sigma
183.The four contemporary core project quality concepts that evolved from the quality gurus and frameworks include which of the following?
stakeholder satisfaction
184.The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT:
design work systems
185.Normal or random variations that are considered part of operating the system at its current capability are ______:
common cause variations.
186.All of the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT:
It is inherent in the system and is predictable.
187.Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization’s quality policy?
quality management plan
188.After completing detailed planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test?
It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable.
189.Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful?
An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all
190.______ is the name of the process that identifies which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to comply with them.
Plan Quality Management
191._____ was the influential thought leader in the area of quality who created the Profound Knowledge System.
W. Edwards Deming
192.________ is best known for creating the Quality Trilogy.
Joseph Juran
193.Which of these is NOT one of the key areas covered by Total Quality Management (TQM), developed in the 1980’s on the premise that the old way of trying to catch quality problems by inspection was not adequate?
Project Management
194.Six Sigma uses a 15-step, disciplined process called the ________ process to plan and manage improvement projects.
DMAIC
195.The term ______________ is defined as “the characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.”
Project quality
196.Which of these is NOT an example of an external stakeholder?
Functional areas within the organization
197.Which of these is NOT one of the four core project quality concepts?
Vendor satisfaction
198.Which of these is NOT one of the reasons that it is better to design quality into a process than to find problems upon inspection?
Because of the saying that the team should meet expectations but exceed requirements.
199.Which of these is NOT one of the steps of the PDCA model?
Delivery
200. A ____________ variation is the result of the product design and the method of making it and is exhibited by a random pattern within predictable limits.
Common cause variation
201.________ is defined as an executing process that is primarily concerned with overall process improvements to ensure that each time a deliverable is produced it is error free.
Perform Quality Assurance
202.All of these are primary quality control activities EXCEPT:
Quality audits
203.Project kickoff meetings are conducted for many reasons. All of these are reasons for conducting a project kickoff meeting EXCEPT:
To document the lessons learned for the project.
204._________ marks the transition between the planning and executing project phases.
Baselined project management plan
205.Supply chain operations require managerial processes that span across functional areas within individual organizations, and link trading partners and customers across organizational boundaries.
True
206.During procurement planning, the project team determines which needs can best be met by acquiring products and services from an outside provider, and which can be accomplished by the team.
True
207.Outputs of Plan Procurement Management include the procurement management plan and procurement statement of work.
True
208.On complex projects, despite the importance of factors such as technical capability, managerial capability and previous experience; the selection decision is made mostly or entirely on price.
False
209.In many cases, the proposal prepared by the vendor becomes a part of the final contract.
True
210.A contract is a unilateral, binding document that obligates the seller to furnish supplies or services to the buyer.
False
211.Contract incentives are often used when the buyer wants the seller to meet some defined project metrics, such as finishing the project early, providing a higher level of quality or more features, or anything else that the buyer wants to maximize and is willing to pay for.
True
212.Fixed price contracts provide low risk for the seller, since the buyer will pay a fixed price, regardless of how much the project actually costs the seller.
False
213.One of the important factors that should influence the selection of contract type is how the risk is distributed between the buyer and the seller, and how the project is performed.
True
214.Project partnerships can be advantageous to both the client and the vendor, in terms of improved project execution, flexibility, and reduced bid administration.
True
215.All of the following statements accurately describe supply chain management EXCEPT:
It is a closed-loop system solely within the project organization’s boundaries.
216.Which of the following is one of the PMBOK Guide’s three project procurement management processes?
Conduct procurements
217.The procurement management plan:
describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization.
218. The ________ documents the portion of work to be purchased, in enough detail so potential suppliers can decide if they feel they are capable of and interested in providing it.
procurement statement of work
219.Often a project team will start the selection process by establishing a list of potential suppliers. All of the following information sources are frequently used to identify these potential suppliers EXCEPT:
stakeholder register
220.Under normal conditions, which of these contract types poses the greatest risk to the buyer?
Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
221.All of the following accurately describe the features and characteristics of a contract EXCEPT:
The project organization is always a buyer in a contract arrangement
222.Which party to a contract absorbs the majority of cost risk when a Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) contract is used?
the seller
223.Which of the following types of contracts involves payment to the seller for the seller’s actual approved costs of completed work, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit?
cost-reimbursable contract
224.Project partnerships offer all of the following advantages to vendors EXCEPT:
Buyer gains at the vendor’s expense
225.The word “determine” has multiple meanings that can help a project manager understand if their project is progressing adequately. Which of the answers below is NOT one of the five aspects of project determination?
To delegate responsibility
226.Which of the answers below is NOT one of the categories of internal project issues?
Quality
227.The project work to be performed can come from the WBS and other sources. Which of these is NOT a source that could trigger authorized work?
Scope creep
228.All of the following project team members should serve on a project change control board EXCEPT:
Supplier
229.Which of these is NOT a resolution strategy for risks within project control?
Carefully escalate problems
230.Which of these time periods is NOT discussed by each core team member in the daily agile 15 minute standup meeting?
What I plan to accomplish in the next release
231. A project manager can interpret several things from data displayed in a histogram. If something unusual is happening, the histogram might be ___________.
Skewed
232.Which of these quality management and control tools is customized for each application after deciding exactly what data will be useful in understanding, controlling, and improving a process?
Check sheet
233.The highest bar on a Pareto chart often becomes the “head of the fish” in the ____________.
Ishikawa diagram
234.All of these are types of variation to look for in a Run Chart EXCEPT:
Trend sideways
235.The Earned Value formula for Schedule Variance (SV) is:
SV = EV – PV
236.The __________ is calculated using the formula EV / AC
Cost Performance Index
237.What should your first reaction be if a customer asks for a change to your project scope baseline?
Try to get the customer to accept the original project objectives without changing the scope
238.____________ is accomplished by reviewing all change proposals, estimating their impact on project goals wherever appropriate, approving or declining changes, and managing changes to deliverables, schedules, budgets, and the project management plan.
Perform integrated change control
239.Sometimes a project is terminated before its normal completion.
True
240.Early termination can be either for default or for the convenience of the seller.
False
241.When a project is no longer needed or viable, the project manager, as primary advocate for the project, should recommend early termination.
True
242.The Validate Scope process occurs with interim deliverables throughout the project and with final deliverables near the end.
True
243.Many organizations use project closeout checklists that itemize typical project activities and/or deliverables. These can be used to assign responsibility to each item concerning project closeout.
True
244.On long projects it is often better to capture lessons frequently since people may not remember clearly what happened several months previously.
True
245.A method for documenting and sharing lessons must be established in order for an organization to capitalize on lessons learned.
True
246.Some project sponsors will only approve a project charter if it includes and reflects lessons learned from other recently completed projects.
True
247.Helping good workers to secure good follow-on work is one of the most important things a project manager must do near the end of the project.
True
248.Since projects are temporary in nature and the project team disbands upon completion, it is not necessary for project managers to provide ongoing support in the form of training, change management, and/or other services.
False
249.All of the following reasons might lead to a contract termination for default EXCEPT:
changing customer priorities
250.Which of the following reasons might lead to an early contract termination for convenience?
The buyer faces changing priorities
251.When a project is completed on time, the project team must accomplish all of the following activities EXCEPT:
use alternative dispute resolution
252.The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
validate scope
253.Which of the following is true concerning lessons learned on a project?
Lessons learned are the useful knowledge gained by project team members as they perform the project.
254.All of the following practices have proven effective for managing lessons learned in an organization EXCEPT:
documenting all lessons learned only at the end of the project.
255.Closure of a project generally entails all of the following activities EXCEPT:
updating the project management plan
256.A project team attempting to close a project should review all of the following documents to ensure that everything promised was delivered EXCEPT:
the stakeholder register
257.A project team attempting to close a project should review which of the following to ensure the customers are satisfied with the project work?
the customer feedback and scope verification
258.Many organizations require the completion of a project close-out report upon completion of a project. These reports typically include which of the following?
a review of the project’s original justification
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