1. _ is software that improves connectivity between a client application and a server.   API
2. ___ is software that improves connectivity between a client application and a server.   API
3. ____ makes more efficient use of the 32-bit IP address than the class-based method primarily because it makes more efficient use of the address space.  CIDR
4. _____ refers to a set of specifications developed by the IEEE 802.3 committee to provide a low-cost, Ethernet-compatible LAN operating at 100 Mbps.   Rapid Ethernet
5. ______ is a notification from either a station or an AP that an existing association is terminated.  Disassociation
6. _______ defines a format for text messages that are sent using e-mail.   RFC 822
7. _______ is a term used to refer to the implementation of Internet technologies within a corporate organization rather than for external connection to the global Internet.  Intranet
8. _______ machines are typically single-user PCs or workstations that provide a highly user-friendly interface to the end user.   Client
9. _______ products are typically based on one of three underlying mechanisms: message passing, remote procedure calls, and object-oriented mechanisms.   Remote procedure calls
10. _______ refers to the combination of HTTP and SSL to implement secure communication between a Web browser and a Web server.   HTTPS
11. ________ is a method for addressing, creating, updating, or querying relational databases.   SQLB
12. _________ is an identifier for a set of interfaces in which a packet is delivered to one of the interfaces identified by that address (the “nearest” one, according to the routing protocols’ measure of distance).   Anycast
13. A _______ is a network data object or service that can be identified by a URL.  Resource
14. A _________ is a networked information requester that can query a database or other information.    Server
15. A basic rule of thumb for radio-based communication is that the higher the frequency, the shorter the transmission distance.  True
16. A benefit of extranets is:   all of the above
17. A computer that houses information for manipulation by networked clients is a   client
18. A description of the nature of service to be provided, the expected performance level of the service, and the process for monitoring and reporting the service level, is information that is typically included in a _________ .   SLA
19. A hub uses a ________ wiring arrangement to attach stations to the hub.   Star
20. A person or organization that maintains a business relationship with, and uses service from, cloud providers is a   cloud consumer
21. A practical application for multicasting is:    all of the above
22. A security policy should be established and careful consideration given to the personnel allowed external access to internal systems.   True
23. A set of one or more interconnected BSSs and integrated LANs that appear as a single BSS to the LLC layer at any station associated with one of these BSSs.  ESS
24. Advantages of a web/database system as compared to a more traditional database approach include:   ease of administation and transaction tracking
25. An advantage of an intranet-based approach to corporate computing is:   all of the above
26. An autonomous system (AS) exhibits which of the following characteristics?   all of the above
27. An internet routing protocol is used to exchange information about reachability and traffic delays, allowing each router to construct a next-hop routing table for paths through the internet.   True
28. Another rule of thumb is that as the frequency increases, the easier it is to disrupt the signal.  True
29. Because of increased functionality of modern layer 2 switches, bridges have been replaced by these types of switches.  True
30. Both the broadcast and multiple unicast strategies are inefficient because they generate unnecessary copies of the source packet.   True
31. Email functions visible to a user, such as facilities for preparing and submitting messages, filing, replying, and forwarding, are considered:   user agent functions
32. Every MAC frame must include two addresses, which allows an alternative receiver to be designated in the event an error occurs.   False
33. HTTP uses a request/response style of communication.   True
34. IEEE 802.11 defines _______ services that need to be provided by the WLAN to achieve functionality equivalent to that which is inherent to wired LANs.  Nine
35. IEEE 802.11 defines a number of services that need to be provided by wireless LAN to provide functionality. Which of the following is not one of these services?  Coordination
36. IGMP takes advantage of the broadcast nature of a LAN to provide an efficient technique for the exchange of information among multiple hosts and routers.  True
37. Image-based applications include facsimile, computer-aided design (CAD), publishing, and medical imaging.   True
38. In an internet environment, multicasting is an easier undertaking.  False
39. In general, performance on a LAN _________ with an increase in the number of devices or the length of the wire.   Increases
40. In general, public and Internet mail systems offer access to a wider range of services and more robust applications.   False
41. In order to be compliant, a mail system must include all five of the additional MIME headers.  True
42. In the MAC frame, the start of frame delimited (SFD) provides the receiver with the starting point of meaningful data in the frame.  True
43. IP addresses are usually written in what is called ___________ notation , with a decimal number representing each of the octets of the 32-bit address.  dotted decimal
44. IPv6 includes ________ address fields.  128-bit
45. Most client/server environments emphasize the use of a GUI.  True
46. Multiple IP addresses referring to a block of CIDR addresses can be identified with a single mask, a process known as __________ .   supernetting
47. Network topology refers to the way individual end stations access the network prior to transmission of user data.  False
48. NIST defines three service models that can be viewed as nested service alternatives: SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS.   True
49. SSL provides three categories of security: confidentiality, message integrity, and ___   authentification
50. The ________ relays mail for one application-level hop.   MTA
51. The ________ works on behalf of user actors and user applications and is their representative within the e-mail service.   MUA
52. The _________ in an internet are responsible for receiving and forwarding packets through the interconnected set of networks, making routing decisions based on knowledge of the topology and traffic/delay conditions of the internet.   Routers
53. The _________ is fundamentally a client/server application running over the Internet and TCP/IP intranets.  World Wide Web
54. The __________ is a 32-bit cyclic redundancy check (CRC), based on all fields except preamble, SFD, and FCS.   FCS
55. The end result for 802.11 is a MAC algorithm called __________ that provides a distributed access control mechanism with an optional centralized control built on top of that.   DFWMAC
56. The five header fields defined in MIME are: MIME version, content-type, content-transfer-encoding, content-ID, and _____   content description
57. The frame format for the 802.3 protocol consists of:  all of the above
58. The IP address is obtained either by looking it up in a configuration file or dynamically, via the ______________.   DHCP
59. The left-most bits of a IP address determine whether it is Class A, B, or C.   true
60. The magnitude of delay variation, called ________ , is a critical factor in realtime applications.  Jitter
61. The maximum number of Class A network addresses is ____   126
62. The most widely used high-speed LANs in today’s enterprise networks are referred to as _________ and were developed by the IEEE 802.3 standards committee.   Ethernet
63. The source and destination address fields in the TCP header each contain a 32-bit Internet address.    False
64. The strength of Ethernet lies in its backward compatibility, industry support, and simplicity.  True
65. The value of the DS field, referred to as the DS ________, is the label used to classify packets for differentiated services.   Codeprint
66. This is defined as a station movement from one BSS to another within the same ESS. In this case, delivery of data to the station requires that the addressing capability be able to recognize the new location of the station BSS transition
67. This option makes use of four pairs of Category 5 UTP to support devices over a range of up to 100 m.   1000BASE-T
68. This option supports 1-Gbps links among devices located within a single room or equipment rack, using copper jumpers (specialized STP cable that spans no more than 25 m). Each link is composed of a separate STP running in each direction.  1000BASE-CX
69. This short-wavelength option supports duplex links of up to 275 m using 62.5-μm multimode or up to 550 m using 50-μm multimode fiber. Wavelengths are in the range of 770-860 nm.    1000BASE-SX
70. Three functional procedures are involved in the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP): neighbor acquisition, neighbor reachability, and __   network reachability
71. To identify a host on the Internet, each host is assigned a unique IP address, which consists of two logical components: a network component and a ________ component.   Host
72. Today, _________ is the most widely accepted QoS mechanism in enterprise networks.   DS
73. Two notable consumer electronic gadgets that are impacting the traffic load on networks are the digital versatile disc and the digital still camera   true
74. Typically cloud computing services will be rented from an external company that hosts and manages them.   True
75. When using a wireless LAN with a notebook computer, it is necessary for the computer not to move while the connection is active.   False
76. When using HTTP, a network data object or service that can be identified by a URL is called a ____   resource
77. When using HTTP, an application program that establishes connections for the purpose of sending requests to a server is called a ___   client
78. Which of the following describes class C networks?   many networks, each with a few hosts
79. Which of the following is a true statement regarding SMTP processing of messages?   SMTP does not guarantee that all messages are delivered
80. Which of the following is NOT a class of client/server processing?  network-based processing
81. Which of the following types of intermediate devices can be used in an HTTP network?  all of the above
82. With ___________, or asynchronous primitives, a process is not suspended as a result of issuing a Send or Receive.  Nonblocking

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