1. What is the bit size of SOF?
One octet
2. What is the maximum transmission distance of 1000BaseT?
100 meters (328 feet)
3. What is the maximum transmission distance of 10GBaseLR?
6 miles
4. Which device cannot be used with full-duplex communication?
hub
5. What is the size of a MAC address?
48 bits
6. What is the decimal value for the binary number 11101000?
232
7. Which IEEE standard is used for Ethernet over power lines?
1901
8. If you are using a cable medium called 10Base2, what does this mean?
You are using 10 Mbps of baseband technology
9. What is the maximum transmission distance of 10GBaseSR?
302 meters (990 feet)
10. Which of these is a standard created by the IEEE 802.3bq committee
40GBaseT
11. Which of these refers to a particular network scenario wherein one device sends a packet out on a network segment.
Collision domain
12. How many devices in a collision domain have to listen when a single host talks
All (one, two, three)
13. Which of these is a media access control connection method that helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium.
CSMA/CD
14. Which of these is a mode 10GBaseE supporting a link length of up to 40 km on SMF that is based on G.652 using the optical wavelength of 1,550nm
10GBaseEW
15. How many wire pairs are used with 100BaseTX full-duplex?
Two
16. If a binary value is 1111, then what will be its hexadecimal value
F
17. Which of the following standards uses EIA/TIA category 5, category 5e, or category 6 and UTP two-pair wiring
100BaseTX
18. What is the effective total throughput increase with a full-duplex connection?
Two times better than before
19. What does the base mean in 100BaseTX?
Baseband
20. What is the hexadecimal value of number 10?
A
QUIZ 5
1. What advantage does a switch have over a hub?
It recognizes frame boundaries and pays attention to the destination MAC addresses of the incoming frames.
2. What is the use of the web proxy server?
To create a web cache
3. Which of these is a network device that is used to connect multiple devices together without segmenting a network?
Hub
4. What is the primary function of a bridge?
To keep the traffic separated on both sides of it, breaking up collision domains
5. At which layer of the OSI model does a proxy server operate?
Application
6. Which of the following statements is true regarding encryption and content filtering appliances?
While an encryption appliance is dedicated to encryption, a content filtering appliance scans the content of what goes through it and filters out specific content or content types.
7. Which of the following devices can work at both layer 2 and layer 3 of the OSI model?
Multilayer switch
8. Switches are layer 2 devices. What does it mean?
They segment the network with MAC addresses.
9. The users on your network are saturating your bandwidth because they are using too many non-work-related sites. What device would limit the availability of the types of sites that the users on a LAN have access to while providing granular control over the traffic between the local LAN and the Internet?
Proxy server
10. Which device should be used if the users need to send incoming packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a single IP address?
Load balancer
11. Which of these is the cause of LAN traffic congestion?
Broadcast storm
12. What role does the A record in a DNS server play in the network?
It translates the human name to the IP address.
13. Which device does not aid in network segmentation?
Hub
14. What happens if a switch determines that a frame’s final destination happens to be on a segment that’s connected via a different port than the one on which the frame was received?
The switch will only forward the frame out from the specific port on which its destination is located.
15. Which of the following is not a requirement for a SOHO Internet connection?
IDS/IPS
16. What happens if the DHCP server isn’t on the same segment as the DHCP client?
The broadcast won’t be received by the server because, by default, routers won’t forward them.
17. What is the benefit of MLS over a layer 2 switch?
It provides routing.
18. Which device makes each of its ports a unique, singular collision domain?
Switch
19. What is an advantage of the DHCP server in a network environment?
It assigns IP addresses to hosts.
20. Which of these is the process of finding the IP address for any given hostname?
Name resolution
QUIZ 6
1. Which of the following statements is true about the DHCP Discover message?
1. It uses UDP as the transport layer protocol.
2. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast.
2. Which protocol is used to find the hardware address of a host from a known IP address?
ARP
3. You need to have secure communications using HTTPS. What port number is used by default?
443
4. Which of the following statements is true about a baseline?
It is a report delimiting the operational traits of a healthy network.
5. Which of the following statements is true about PDU?
It holds the control information attached to the data at each layer of the OSI model.
6. You need to have a connection to run applications that are installed only on your desktop computer at your office. Which protocol will provide a GUI interface to your work computer?
RDP
7. Which of the following statements are true regarding the ICMP packets?
1. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
2. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
8. Which of these uses a spooled or queued method of mail delivery?
SMTP
9. You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will help you in the given scenario?
DHCP
10. Which of the following protocols gives the users a storage facility for incoming mail?
POP
11. Which of these sets up a secure Telnet session over a standard TCP/IP connection?
SSH
12. Which of the following protocols has no directory-browsing abilities and can do nothing but send and receive files?
TFTP
13. You need to transfer files between two hosts. Which protocol can you use?
FTP
14. Which of the following protocols is used by email servers to exchange messages with one another?
SMTP
15. Which of the following protocols takes large blocks of information from an application and breaks them into segments?
TCP
16. Which of these is a tunneling protocol that can encapsulate many protocols inside IP tunnels?
GRE
17. What is the default port number of Telnet?
TCP 23
18. What is the main purpose of the host-to-host layer?
To shield the data link-layer applications from the complexities of the network
19. Which of the following protocols is used to access and query directory services systems, such as Microsoft Active Directory?
LDAP
20. Which of the following port numbers is related to DNS?
53
QUIZ 7
1. Which of the following statements are true about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses?
1. An IPv6 address is 128-bits long, represented in hexadecimal.
2. An IPv4 address is 32-bits long, represented in decimal.
2. Which of these is a valid Class B address?
129.1.1.1
3. What is the IP range of APIPA?
169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254
4. Which of these is a valid Class A address?
126.10.0.1
5. Which of the following statements is true about the anycast address?
It identifies multiple interfaces, and the packet is delivered to only one address.
6. What is the function of the network 127.0.0.1?
It is reserved for loopback tests.
7. How long is the Class C network address?
24-bits
8. What is the size of an IPv6 address?
128-bits
9. Which of these is used by Cisco routers to designate the default route?
Entire IP address set to all 0s
10. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Class C network?
It is reserved for numerous networks with a small number of hosts.
11. IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Based on the given information, which of the following addresses would be used as the EUI-64 address?
fe80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80
12. Which of the following statements is true about the host address of all 0s?
It is interpreted to mean the network address or any host on the specified network.
13. Which of these is a valid Class C address?
192.255.254.0
14. Which of the following describes a broadcast address?
All host bits are on (1s).
15. Which of the following addresses is not allowed on the Internet?
172.31.12.251
16. Which of the following statements is true about the private IP addresses?
They can be used on a private network, but they’re not routable through the Internet.
17. Which of the following statements is true about the multicast address?
The packets addressed to a multicast address are delivered to all interfaces identified by the multicast address.
18. Which of the following statements is true about the unicast address?
It includes the packets that are delivered to a single interface.
19. Which of the following statements is true about the layer 2 broadcasts in IPv4?
They are sent to all nodes on a LAN.
20. Which of these is a layer 2 broadcast?
FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF
QUIZ 8,9,10
1. What is the block size of the CIDR subnet mask /28?
16
2. If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the subnet address of this host?
172.16.112.0
3. What is the IP address of the router’s Ethernet0?
192.168.10.33/27
4. Which of the following is a method used by ISPs to allocate a number of addresses to a company or a home connection?
CIDR
5. Which of the following devices allows the users to implement NAT?
Router
6. If you are forced to replace a router that has failed to the point that you are unable to access its current configuration to aid in setting up interface addresses on the new router, which of the following can you reference for assistance?
The default gateway settings on computers from each subnet that the old router is connected to
7.A network administrator is connecting two hosts directly through their Ethernet interfaces. However, the ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts?
A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
8. Which of the following commands displays the list of routers on a path to a network destination by using TTL time-outs and ICMP error messages?
traceroute
9. You have an interface on a router with the IP address 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?
6
10. Which of these is desirable when configuring the IP settings on a computer on one subnet to ensure that it can communicate with a computer on another subnet?
Configure the computer with a default gateway that matches the IP address of the interface of the router, which is attached to the same subnet as the computer.
11. Your ISP has provided you with one IP address with a /30 subnet mask. However, you have 300 users that need to access the Internet. Which technology will you use to implement a solution?
PAT
12. How many masks are there in the CIDR subnet mask /26?
192
13. Which of the following masks should the users use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses on a network?
/30
14. Which of the following is the initial step of creating a solid design of subnetwork?
Determine the number of required network IDs.
15. What is the block size of the CIDR subnet mask /30?
4
16. You have a network with a subnet 172.16.17.0/22. Which of these is a valid host address?
172.16.18.255 with network ID 255.255.252.0
17. What is the highest usable address on the 172.16.1.0/24 network?
172.16.1.254
18. You receive a call from a user who is complaining that they cannot get on the Internet. You have them verify their IP address, mask, and default gateway. The IP address is 10.0.37.144, with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 10.0.38.1. What is the problem?
Incorrect gateway IP
19. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet, which uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
30
20. You have an interface on a router with the IP address 192.168.192.10/29. What is the broadcast address that the hosts will use on this network?
192.168.192.15
21. Which of the following statements is true about an autonomous system?
It is a collection of networks or subnets that are in the same administrative domains.
22. Which command would be used to view the ARP cache on the host?
arp –a
23. Which of these are the link-state protocols?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
OSPF
IS-IS
24. Where does the frame have to carry a packet if it is destined for a remote network?
Default gateway
25. Which of these are the categories of IGP protocols?
Link-state
Distance-vector
26. When the routing tables of all routers in the network are complete because they include information about all the networks in the internetwork, they are considered __________.
converged
27. Which of the following is not a distance-vector protocol?
OSPF
28. What happens when a router receives a packet for a network that isn’t listed in the routing table?
It will discard the packet.
29. When are you most likely to see a ‘Request Timed Out’ message?
When an unknown error has occurred
30. Which of the following statements is true about MAC addresses?
They are always local on the LAN and never go through and past a router.
31. Where along the IP routing process does a packet get arranged?
Destination device
32. Which of these is a hybrid routing protocol?
EIGRP
33. What type of request must a client send if it does not know the destination MAC address?
ARP broadcast
34. Which of the following EGP protocols is used on the Internet?
BGP
35. Which of the following statements is true aboutdynamic routing?
A protocol on one router communicates with the same protocol running on the neighboring routers.
36. What does C mean in the routing table output?
The networks listed are directly connected, and until the routing protocol is added to the routers in the internetwork, the users will have only directly connected networks in the routing table.
37. Which of these is the time required by the routing protocols to update the routing tables (forwarding tables) on all routers in the network?
Routing convergence
38. What does the acronym EIGRP stand for?
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
39. What pieces of information does a router require to make a routing decision?
1 Neighbor routers
2 Destination network address
40. Which of these is not a routing protocol?
RIPv3
41. Which of the following statements is true about EIGRP?
It uses the concept of an autonomous system to describe the set of contiguous routers that run the same routing protocol and share routing information.
42. Which of the following protocols is Cisco’s favorite FHRP protocol?
HSRP
43. Which routing protocols have an administrative distance of 120?
1. RIPv1
2. RIPv2
44. Which of these contains all destinations advertised by neighboring routers, holding each destination address and a list of neighbors that have advertised the destination?
Topology table
45. What is the other name for route aggregation?
Supernetting
46. Which of the following statements describes routing convergence time?
The time required by protocols to update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred
47. Which of the following statements is true regarding the successor route?
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination and is stored in the routing table.
48. Which routing protocol uses multicast 224.0.0.9?
RIPv2
49. Which of the following routing protocols is essentially an alternative to using default routes for controlling path selections?
BGP
50. Which of the following statements is true about the administrative distance?
It is used to rate the trustworthiness of routing information received on one router from its neighboring router.
51. What is the administrative distance of OSPF?
110
52. In how much time gap does RIP send the complete routing table out to all active interfaces?
30 seconds
53. What is the multicast address of EIGRPv6 in IPv4?
224.0.0.10
54. RIP has a long convergence time and users have been complaining of response time when a router goes down and RIP has to reconverge. Which of the following solutions can the users implement to improve the convergence time on the network?
Update RIP to OSPF using link-state routing.
55. Which routing protocol is used to connect ASs on the Internet?
BGP
56. Which of the following statements is true about a hybrid protocol?
BGP is listed as a hybrid routing protocol because of its capability to work as an EGP and can be used in supersized internetworks internally.
57. Which of the following protocols support VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous networking?
1 OSPF
2 EIGRP
3 RIPv2
58. In a distance-vector protocol, the vector indicates the direction of the remote network.
True
59. Which of the following protocols has a max hop count of 15 and uses UDP port 521?
RIPng
60. Which of these are considered link-state routing protocols?
1 IS-IS
OSPF
QUIZ 14
1. Which of these should not be updated to reflect the changed state of the network?
Notification to change
2. Which of these represents the amount of time a system will be down or unavailable during the implementation of changes?
Maintenance window
3. Which of these is a plan for reversing changes and recovering from any adverse effects from the changes?
Rollback
4. Which of these indicates the way of properly installing or removing software on the servers?
Procedure
5. You have made the release of product plans available only to the Sales group members. Which tool can prevent the emailing of a document to anyone other than Sales group members?
DLP
6. To what type of devices are the BYOD policies applied?
Mobile
7. Which policy shows the time before a password can be reused?
Password history
8. Which of the following is not a device hardening technique?
Deploy an access control vestibule.
9. A network baseline delimits when bandwidth is available and the amount of that bandwidth.
True
10. Which of these connects equipment (inside plant) to cables and subscriber carrier equipment (outside plant)?
MDF
Quiz-15
1. Which of these provides a method to join multiple physical switches into a single logical switching unit?
Switch stacking
2. Which of the following protocols gives the users a way to configure more than one physical router to appear as if they were only a single logical one?
FHRP
3. Which of the following fire suppression systems is not a good choice for locating computing equipment?
Deluge
4. Which site is a leased facility that contains all the resources needed for full operation?
Hot
5. Which of the following statements is true about the HSRP group?
It has only one active router, at least one standby router, and many listening routers.
6. What is the HSRP group number of the group with the HSRP MAC address as 0000.0c07.ac0a?
10
7. Which of the following timers have the default interval of 3 seconds and identifies the state that each router is in?
Hello
8. Which of these is an IEEE standard (RFC 2338) for router redundancy?
VRRP
9. Which of these is a measure back in time when the data was preserved in a usable format, most often to the recent backup?
RPO
10. Which of the following backup types does not include the data?
System state
Quiz-16
1. Which of the following concerns should the users have when they encrypt data before sending it?
Confidentiality
2. Which of these is not an external threat?
Accidental file deletion by an ex-employee
3. Which of these is maintained by the MITRE Corporation and includes entries that describe a vulnerability in detail, using a number and letter system?
CVE
4. Which of these is an attack where no known fix exists?
Zero-day
5. Which of these occurs when a threat agent takes advantage of weakness and uses it to advance an attack?
Exploit
6. Which principle specifies that the users should be given access only to resources required to do their job?
Least privilege
7. Which of the following access methods allows the new employees to be simply placed in the group and inherit all the required permissions?
Role-based
8. You have decided that the default permission for all files will be ‘No Access’. What principle are you following?
Zero Trust
9. Which of these is a method of checking the security health of network hosts before they’re allowed to access the network?
NAC
10. Which of these are you following when you are encrypting a file, applying access permissions to it, and locking the door to the room where the server on which the file resides is located?
Defense-in-depth
QUIZ-17
1. Which of these is an AP that is not under the user’s control but is used to perform a hijacking attack?
Evil twin
2. Which of these is connected to the users’ wired infrastructure without their knowledge?
Rogue AP
3. Which of these is the process of adopting another system’s MAC address for the purpose of receiving the data meant for that system?
ARP spoofing
4. Which of the following types of attacks includes double tagging?
VLAN hopping
5. Which of these was previously known as the man-in-the-middle attack?
On-path
6. In which of these do the attacker and his bots send a small spoofed 8-byte UDP packet to the vulnerable NTP servers that request a large amount of data to be sent to the DDoS’s target IP address?
NTP
7. Which of these is an attack that inundates the receiving machine with lots of packets that cause the victim to waste resources by holding connections open?
SYN flood
8. Which of these is a version of the DoS attack that floods its victim with spoofed broadcast ping messages?
Smurf
9. Which of the following attacks includes the command and control server?
DDoS
10. Which of the following is not a technology-based attack?
Shoulder surfing
QUIZ-18
1. Where should the users always start their search for driver updates?
Website of the manufacturer
2. Which of the following conditions should be included when configuring ACLs between the Internet and the private network to mitigate security problems?
Deny any addresses from the internal networks.
3. In which of the following systems are users organized by job into security groups, which are then granted the rights and permissions required to perform that job?
RBAC
4. Which of these is also called whitelisting?
Implicit deny
5. Which of the following statements is true about the explicit deny approach?
All traffic is allowed unless it is especially denied with a rule
6. Which of these can be used with a wireless sniffer?
MAC address filter
7. Which of these creates two WLANs in one?
Guest network isolation
8. Which of these defines the area in which an operation can be performed by using a GPS?
Geofencing
9. Which of these is a web page to which the users are directed when they attempt to connect to the WLAN?
Captive portal
10. Which of these is a role that an IoT device can play in a botnet?
Zombie
QUIZ-19
1. Which of the following types of VPN includes a split tunnel and a full tunnel?
Client-to-site
2. Which of these is not an example of a remote desktop connection?
SSH
3. Which of these operates similar to Telnet, except instead of getting a command-line prompt as the users do with Telnet, they get the actual GUI of the remote computer?
RDP
4. Which of these was formerly called Terminal Services Client?
Remote Desktop Connection
5. Which of these allows the users to tunnel directly to the remote server with no VPN?
RDP Gateway
6. Which of these is a network protocol that is designed as an alternative to command-based utilities, such as Telnet?
SSH
7. Which of the following is not a component of VNC?
VNC desktop
8. Which of these is an operating system image delivered over the network at each startup?
Virtual desktop
9. Which of the following is provisioned for the most effective way to control both authentication of remote users and the application of their permissions?
AAA
10. Which of the following technologies includes Integrated Lights-Out?
Out-of-band management
QUIZ-20
1. Which of these includes an open case warning?
Tamper detection
2. Which motion detection system operates by emitting a magnetic field and monitoring that field?
Capacitance
3. Which motion detection system operates by identifying changes in heat waves in an area?
Infrared
4. Which of these is managed using a simple desktop or mobile software?
Smart locker
5. Which of these was previously known as mantrap?
Access control vestibule
6. Which of these occurs when a legitimate user is denied authentication in a biometric system?
False negative
7. Which of these are not examples of multifactor authentication?
USB fob and smart card
8. Which of these comprises a category of devices that are used to identify and authenticate users?
Access control hardware
9. Which of these is designed to operate using characteristic and behavioral factors?
Biometric system
10. Which of the following would not be considered a detection method?
Employee training
QUIZ 21
1)At which layer do the servers connect on a three-tiered network?
Access
2) Which of these is used to describe network traffic flow that either enters or leaves the data center from/to a system physically residing outside the data center?
North-South
3) Which of these allows for applications to control and configure the network without human intervention?
API
4) Where does the SDN controller interface reside in the control plane with the switching fabric?
Control plane
5) Which of these is a process-related standard that outlines best practices for IT asset management in an organization?
19770-1
6) You have upgraded the firmware on your switches and access points. Which documentation do you need to update?
Physical network diagram
7) UTP cable has specific colors for the wire associated with each pin. Based on the TIA/EIA 568B wiring standard, what is the correct color order, starting with pin 1?
White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
8) Which pins are switched in a crossover cable?
1 and 3, 2 and 6
9) Which of these governs how a network is configured and operated as well as how people are expected to behave on a network?
Policies
10) Which virtualization approach runs within a conventional operating system environment?
Type 2 hypervisor
11) Which of these describes numerous technologies that are able to deliver voice communications over the Internet or other data networks?
VoIP
12) Which of these are the reasons to optimize network performance?
Minimizing latency
Using VoIP
Using video applications
13) Which of these methods are used to connect a private cloud to a public cloud?
Internet
VPN
Direct Connect
14) Public clouds are divided into logical groupings that allow many different customers to access a section as if it were their own private data center. This process is known as ___________________.
multitenancy
15) When the vendor provides the hardware platform or data center, and the company installs and manages its own operating systems and application systems, which service type is being used?
Infrastructure as a Service
16) After a network configuration change has been made, which of these is not a document that needs to be updated?
Application document
17) While unexpected adverse effects of a change can’t always be anticipated, a good-faith effort should be made to identify all possible systems that could be impacted by the change.
True
18) Abstracting the cloud hardware into software objects for automated configuration is referred to as ___________________.
Infrastructure as Code
19) Which of these is included in the rack security?
Swing handle with a number and a key lock
20) Which of the following components of virtual networking can perform all the same functions as physical servers?
Virtual server
QUIZ 22
1) Which device components should not be allowed to reach full capacity?
Memory
CPU
2) Which of the following statements is true about latency?
More the latency, longer the delay, and longer the users have to stare blankly back at their computer screen, hoping something happens soon
3) What is the variation in delay called?
Jitter
4) Which SNMP version added support for the GET BULK operations?
SNMPv2c
5) Which of these supports strong authentication with MD5 or SHA, providing confidentiality and data integrity of messages via DES or DES-256 encryption between agents and managers?
SNMPv3
6) Which of the following versions of SNMP supports plaintext authentication with community strings and uses only UDP?
SNMPv1
7) Which networking protocol uses OIDs and MIBs for data collection and organization of data?
SNMP
8) Which of these is a text string containing detailed information about the event being reported?
Description
9) Which protocol allows the users to display, sort, and even search messages, all of which makes it a great troubleshooting tool?
Syslog
10) Which of the following Syslog severity level denotes that the system is unusable?
Emergency
11) Which of these represents the bi-directional traffic flow across an Ethernet interface?
Full-duplex
12) Which of these mathematically determines network errors?
CRC
13) Which environmental variables are critical factors in the health of computing equipment?
Temperature
Humidity
14) Which of these occurs when a segment of data fails the addition or deletion of header information?
Encapsulation error
15) What can be the smallest size of an Ethernet frame?
64 bytes
16) A specific server’s baseline describes norms for factors, such as how busy its processors are and how much of the memory it uses.
True
17) Which of these can refer to the standard level of performance of a certain device or to the normal operating capacity for the whole network?
Baseline
18) Which of these can collect more granular information on traffic flows than SNMP is able to?
NetFlow
19) Which of these is a system-design protocol that guarantees a certain amount of operational uptime during a given period?
High availability
20) Which of these are the metrics that are tracked to account for utilization in operations?
Uptime
Downtime
QUIZ 23
1) You install new switches in your server room and are now experiencing network instability and other issues across all servers in the rack. Which device would be used to alert you of system overheating?
Voltage event recorder
2) Which of the following tools can test a port on a device?
Loopback plug
3) Which device monitors incoming voltage levels and overvoltage thresholds?
Surge protector
4) On which of these would a technician use a punch-down tool?
110 blocks
5) Which tool is used to attach an RJ-45 connector to Cat 5e, 6, 7, or 8 cables?
Crimper
6) Which tool pushes a conductor between the sides of a V inside an IDC?
Punch-down tool
7) Which device will be used to locate a specific connection in an unlabeled punch-down block?
Toner probe
8) Which device would be used to measure voltage?
Multimeter
9) Which of these is not a function of a TDR?
Display unused services.
10) Which software tool looks at all traffic on a network segment?
Packet sniffer
11) Which device should be used if you need to determine whether your network meets ISO or TIA standards?
Certifiers
12) Which of these can check the speed and condition of the signal on a cable, measure the time it takes to send a signal down the wire and back, and find the exact location of a break?
TDR
13) What is the purpose of wire-map testers?
To detect transposed wires, opens, and shorts in twisted-pair cables
14) Which of the following statements is true about a butt set?
It is essentially a portable telephone that allows the users to test analog wet or dry lines and is used to monitor those lines.
15) End-to-end loss across an Ethernet cable is called _______.
attenuation
16) You need to create a cable that will connect your host to a wall jack connection. Which of the following tools will you use?
Snips
17) Which tool would the users use to both find a break in a fiber-optic connection and test the fiber connectivity on the network?
OTDR
18) Which tool will the users use to trace cables in multiple-pair wiring?
Toner probe
19) Which of the following statements is true about a wire-map tester?
It is a device that transmits signals through each wire in a copper twisted-pair cable to determine if it’s connected to the correct pin at the other end.
20) Which of these is a wiring error where two connections that are supposed to be connected using the two wires of a twisted-pair cable are instead connected using two wires from different pairs?
Split pair
WEKK-1 QUIZS
1. When is a point – to – multipoint network applicable ?
When a centralized office needs to communicate with many branch offices
2. Which of these is a relaxation when using peer – to – peer networks ?
The security associated with such a network
3. Which of the following statements is true about the ring topology ?
It has a lot in common with the bus topology because if the users + want to add a system to the network , they have no choice but to break the cable ring , which is likely to bring down the entire network .
4. Which of these is an example of LAN ?
A computer connected to another computer so that they can share resources
5. When designing a network and deciding which type of network topology to use , which of the following items should be considered ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution . Choose all that apply .
Fault – tolerance requirement.
Ease of maintenance.
Ease of installation.
6. What is a logical grouping of network users and resources called ?
LAN
7. Which of the following topologies has point – to – point connections to every device ?
Mesh
8. Which of the following statements is true about the star topology ?
When the central concentrating device experiences a complete failure , all attached devices lose connectivity to the rest of the network .
9. Which of the following topologies is a combination of two or more types of physical or logical network topologies working together within the same network ?
Hybrid
10. Which of these provides the most physical layout flexibility in a very large and geographically dispersed enterprise network ?
MPLS
11. Which of the following statements are true about WANS ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution . Choose all that apply .
1. They can utilize either private or public data transport media , such as phone lines .
2. They need a router port or ports .
3. They span larger geographic areas and / or can link disparate locations .
12. what type of network are all computers considered equal and do not share any central authority ?
Peer – to – peer
13. Which type of topology gives the users a direct connection between two routers so that there is only one communication path ?
Point – to – point
14. You need a network that provides centralized authentication for your users . Which of the following logical topologies should you use ?
Client – server
15. Which type of topology has the greatest number of physical connections ?
Mesh
16. In a physical star topology , what happens when a workstation loses its physical connection to another device ?
Only that particular workstation loses its ability to communicate .
17. You have a network with multiple LANS and want to keep them separate but still connect them together so that they all can get to the Internet . Which of these is the best solution that should be implemented in the given scenario ?
Install a router .
18. Which type of technology uses labels , which enables the priority of voice data through the network ?
MPLS
19. Which of the following topologies is scalable to use in the network ?
Star
20. What advantages do the client – server architecture have over the peer – to – peer architecture ? Each correct answer represents a complete solution . Choose all that apply .
1 Greater organization
2. Tighter security
3. Easier maintenance
21. Which IEEE standard specifies the media-access method used by Ethernet, which is known as CSMA/CD ?
802.3
22. Which of these can the users use to remember the first letter of the name of each layer of the OSI model in the proper order ?
Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away
23. Which of the following layers of the OSI model includes routers that perform the routing services within an internetwork ?
Network
24. Which of the following layers of the OSI model can be used to keep an application’s data separate from other application’s data ?
Session
25. At which layer of the OSI model would the users find the IP address ?
Network
26. What is the purpose of flow control ?
To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding sequencing and acknowledgements?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
1. The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception
2. Any segments not acknowledged are retransmitted
3. Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination
28. Which of the following layers of the OSI model includes acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control ?
4
29. Which of these do the routers break up?
Broadcast domains
30. At which layer of the OSI model does the segmentation of a data stream happen ?
Transport
31. Which layer of the OSI model provides dialog control between devices or nodes?
Session
32. A receiving host has failed to receive all the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session ?
Decrease the window size
33. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting the data into the signals that are appropriate for the transmission medium ?
Physical
34. Which layer of the OSI model formats the message into pieces and adds a customized header containing the destination and source hardware addresses ?
Data link
35. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data translation and code formatting ?
Presentation
36. You are connected to a server on the Internet. You have clicked a link on the server and have received a time-out message. What layer could be the source of this time-out message ?
Application
37. Which layer of the OSI model chooses and determines the availability of communicating partners along with the resources necessary to make their required connections ?
Application
38. At which layer of the OSI model do TCP and UDP reside ?
4
39. In a connection-oriented session, if host 1 sent the SYN packet to host 2, what will host 2 send in response ?
SYN/ACK
40. Which is the correct order of data encapsulation ?
Data, segment, packet, frame, bits
41. How many wires are used in a 100BaseTX UTP transmission?
Four
42. Which of the following statements is true about fiber-optic cable?
It can transmit up to 40 kilometers
43. Which of the following UTP cable categories is used for 100BaseTX (two pair wiring) and is rated for 100 MHz bandwidth?
Category 5
44. Which of these are the fiber optic-connectors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
1. ST
2. SC
3. LC
45. For which of the following distances is RJ-45 mainly used in LAN?
100 meters
46. What is the main difference between SMF and MMF?
Number of light rays
47.Which type of cable transmits the light source from one end to another?
SMF (single-mode fiber)
48. Why is fiber-optic cable immune to EMI and RFI?
Because it transmits digital signals using light impulses
49. Which of these provides the longest cable run distance?
Single-mode fiber
50. What type of connector does UTP cable use?
RJ-45
52. In which of the following categories is UTP cable not related?
Category 9
51. Which of the following statements is true about the non-plenum cable?
It’s insulation gives off poisonous smoke that gets circulated throughout the whole building
52. How many hosts can talk at one time on a full-duplex segment?
Two
53. How many hosts can talk at a time on a half-duplex segment?
One
54. How many wires does VoIP use?
Eight
55. Which of the following statements is true regarding the wiring of a T1 crossover cable?
Pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to pins 4, 5, 1, and 2, respectively
56. Which of these is not connected via a crossover cable?
Host to switch
57. Which of the following types of cables is used to connect a host to a switch or a hub or a router to a switch or a hub?
Straight-through
58. What is the purpose of the demarcation point?
To separate the customer from the service provider
60. In which of the following twisted-pair Ethernet is UTP commonly used?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
1. 10BaseT
2. 100BaseTX
3. 1000BaseTX
Other Links:
See other websites for quiz:
Check on QUIZLET