- A project is a time-bound effort constrained by performance specifications, resources, and budget to create a unique product or service.
True
2. Operations consist of the ongoing work needed to ensure that an organization continues to function effectively.
True
3. A project manager needs to be concerned with achieving desired scope and quality (often called performance), subject to constraints of time and cost.
True
4.Many different project life cycle models are used for different types of projects, such as information systems, improvement, research and development, and construction.
True
5.Generally,the pace of work and amount of money spent remains consistent from one life cycle stage to another.
False
6. The name and number of phases in a project life cycle are determined by the organization(s) involved in the project.
True
7. Communications Management, one of the ten PMBOK Guide Knowledge Areas, entails the processes to identify the people, groups, or organizations, that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyze their expectations and impact, and develop strategies for engaging them in project decisions and execution.
False
8.The only critical measures of project success are completing the project on schedule and on budget.
False
9.In agile projects, the customer representative role is passive, and their involvement is typically limited to the early stages of the project.
False
10.The Project Management Office (PMO) is comprised of the top leader in the organization (CEO or other officer) and his or her direct reports.
False
11.Which of the following examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ project management?
processing deposits and withdrawals in a bank
12.In an adaptive or change – driven project life cycle:
early results lead into planning later work.
13.Which of the following statements correctly describes project management?
Project management uses knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to meet stakeholder needs and expectations
14.Which of the following statements regarding project life cycles is most accurate?
Many different project life cycle models are used for different types of projects.
15.Which of the ten knowledge areas defined in the Project Management Body of Knowledge includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully?
Scope management
16.Achieving project success is determined by all of the following EXCEPT:16.Achieving project success is determined by all of the following EXCEPT:
involving only important key stakeholders
17.Projects are considered successful for all of the reasons below EXCEPT:
the team has used heroics to meet project objectives
18.Project failure can result from all of the following causes EXCEPT:
adequate support from executive management
19.A project manager in agile projects who serves and leads in a collaborative, facilitating manner is called a:
scrum master
20.From an agile project management perspective, which of these constraints are considered to be fixed?
Resources and schedule
Chapter 3 Test
1.The project charter serves as a formal legal contract between the project team and the project sponsor.
False
2.In contrast to a legal contract, the parties to a signed project charter feel obligated to the spirit (as opposed to the letter) of the charter since the project details have not yet been worked out and the specifics will certainly change.
False
3.A charter can be used to quickly screen out obviously poor projects.
False
4.A project charter can vary in its length from one-page to multiple pages, depending on the size and complexity of the project.
True
5.A well-written business case should persuade decision-makers to support the project and inspire the project team members and key stakeholders to work hard towards successful completion of the project.
True
6.The project business case provides a high-level description of what the project will accomplish and how it will be done.
False
7.The project master network is a high-level plan that indicates a few significant accomplishments that are anticipated over the life of the project.
False
8.A key concept in agile projects is that something of value will be delivered at each iteration.
True
9.Risks, assumptions and constraints are included in the project charter so that key participants will be aware of what could prevent them from successfully completing the project.
True
10.During project charter creation there is typically a very general understanding of the project, so any budget included is approximate and should be called a preliminary budget with a corresponding confidence level for this estimate.
True
11.The project charter grants the project team the right to:
create a detailed project pla
12.The project charter serves all of the following purposes EXCEPT:
describes skill sets needed for the project
13.During iteration planning in an agile project, agreement is reached regarding:
the definition of done
14.Which of the following charter elements defines the project purpose and justifies the necessity of the project?
business case
15.The milestone schedule in the project charter:
is a high-level plan that indicates a few significant accomplishments anticipated over the life of the project.
16.Project charters typically include all of the following elements EXCEPT:
detailed resource requirements
17.Team operating principles are sometimes included in a project charter to enhance team performance. Which of the following statements accurately describes the value of establishing team operating principles?
Operating principles increase team effectiveness and ensure that all parties are aware of what is expected
18.A project sponsor is wise not to sign a project charter authorizing work until the project manager and team show that they have ____:
reviewed lessons learned from recently completed projects in order to avoid similar mistakes
19.Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibilities typically associated with the development of the project charter?
more often than not, the project manager writes the draft project charter
20.On agile projects the first iteration is planned as a milestone with acceptance criteria. However, subsequent milestones and acceptance criteria are determined on a
just in time (JIT) basis
Chapter 2 Assignment –
1.The first part of setting strategic direction for an organization is to analyze the external and internal environments by preparing a SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats) analysis. Once the SWOT is complete, the next step is to create a clear and compelling statement describing the inspirational long-term desired change resulting from an organization’s work, called a __________.
Vision Statement
2.All of these would typically be included in a mission statement EXCEPT:
Organization’s financial goals
3.In the Build Green Home example of a SWOT analysis, factors including existing thinking on green building and its niche focus, building schedule, and community (location) rumors are all examples of __________.
Threats
4.The most widely accepted financial model for selecting projects is _________:
Net Present Value (NPV)
5.Which of these is NOT a disadvantage of using a financial model for project evaluation and selection?
Use of financial models ensures that selected projects make sense from a cost and return on investment perspectiv
6.All of these are advantages of using a scoring model for selecting projects EXCEPT:
By comparing expected project costs to expected benefits, scoring models can be used to make project investment decisions
7.Which of these is NOT an example of types of projects that the organization might include in their portfolio of projects?
Projects with positive and negative net present value (NPV)
8.Who should be involved in identifying potential projects?
Employees at all Levels
9.Examples of these types of project selection criteria include government regulations and clear safety or security situations.
Mandatory criteria
10.In a project scoring model, each decision criterion is given a __________.
Relative weight
11.The benefit of performing a sensitivity analysis while using a scoring model to choose projects is:
It allows management to examine what would happen to a decision if factors were to change
12.If several projects have close scores as the result of a scoring model, what can be done to break the virtual tie?
Perform a sensitivity analysis to examine what would happen to the decision if factors changed
13.Contractor companies might perform a quick SWOT analysis prior to bidding on a potential project, including all of the considerations below EXCEPT:
Weighted score for the project
14.Source selection criteria for selecting a contractor might include: production capacity, business size and type, past performance, and references. These are all examples of typical criteria within which category?
Operational
15.Which of these would NOT be one of the things that may be negotiated between a client company and a contractor company?
Source selection criteria
Chapter 3 Assignment
1.What is the definition of a project charter?
A short document that grants the project team the right to continue into the more detailed planning stages of the project.
2.All of the statements below accurately describe what an effective project charter should accomplish, EXCEPT:
Provides the detailed project scope, schedule and budget to be completed by the team
3.A project charter is similar to a contract in many ways, but there are some differences between the two documents. How are project charters different from contracts?
One party cannot arbitrarily change a contract, whereas the project sponsor does have the authority to change the charter
4.The right length for a typical project charter is generally _________.
1 to 4 page
5.The signing of the project charter marks the transition between which two phases of the project life cycle?
Initiating and Planning
6.The rough draft of the project charter is typically written by _______.
The project manager.
7.This element of the project charter can be considered to define the project boundaries – it states what is included and what is not included, at a fairly high level.
Scope Overview
8.This is defined as an incremental increase in the work of a project without corresponding adjustments to resources, budget or schedule.
Scope creep
9.Adding a background section to a project charter would be helpful in what way?
The background statement provides more detail to understand the rationale and purpose behind the Scope Overview and the Business Case statements.
10.Tracy is working with the project sponsor to create the project charter for a small to medium sized project. In the Milestone Schedule with Acceptance Criteria section of the project charter, how many intermediate milestones should she and the team include?
Three to Eight
11.All but one of these is a type of resource that might be included in the Resources Needed section of the charter. Which type of resource would typically NOT be included?
Office Supplies
12.Which of these is NOT one of the three reasons that project managers and teams should look at risk when creating the project charter?
It is important for the project manager and team to identify all risks to the project during the creation of the charter
13.What are the four columns in a milestone schedule?
Milestone, Completion Date, Stakeholder Judge, Acceptance Criteria
14.With whom may the project manager and team need to negotiate when creating the charter?
Sponsor
15.In the Scheduling Options section under the Schedule file tab, changing the “new tasks created” option to _____________ will cause the program to calculate the projects’ running schedule based on task start and finish dates.
Auto Scheduled
Chapter 5 Test
1.The ideal time to on-board core team members is when the project charter is being written.
True
2.All project teams progress uniformly through five stages of team development.
False
3.Synergy results in a team having a collective capability that exceeds the sum of individual capabilities.
True
4.The “relationship” topics within team ground rules, such as “discuss openly and protect confidentiality” and “avoid misunderstandings”, should eliminate the need for the team to address how to handle conflict.
False
5.A project manager understands the importance of understanding individual motives, and takes the time to ask each team member what he or she personally wants from being involved in the project.
True
6.A project manager’s referent power is described as persuading others based upon giving them something.
. False
7.The adoption of specific ground rules that specify acceptable behaviors by project team members can improve working relationships, effectiveness, and communication.
True
8.When a project team member is not performing, rewards may not prove as effective as a coercive approach that threatens the team member with undesired consequences.
True
9.Conflict over ideas on how to proceed with a project can lead to more creative approaches.
True
10.The negotiation process involves several steps such as: preparing for negotiation; knowing your walk-away point; and working towards a common goal.
True
11.It is argued that project teams progress through five stages of team development. Which of the following sequences best represents this progression?
forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
12.During which stage of team development do team members attempt to jockey for power, ask many questions and establish dubious goals?
storming
13.Agile teams require motivated members with a higher level of commitment, and agile teams have all of the following desirable traits EXCEPT:
Argue about everything
14.Which two project team success factors have shown the strongest correlation to successful project performance as perceived by senior managers?
Stimulating work environment and opportunity for team and individual recognition
15.All of the following are among the methods project managers can use to develop individual and team capabilities EXCEPT:
utilize coercive powers
16.All of the following represent common methods for making decisions on contemporary project teams EXCEPT:
The steering team reviews the project data and makes the decision.
17.Frequently, project managers lack legitimate power based upon position and instead resort to persuading others based upon personal relationships. This type of power is known as:
referent power
18.Which of the following styles of handling conflict is most appropriate whenever there is enough time, trust can be established, the issue is important to both sides and buy-in is needed?
collaborating / problem solving
19.Which of these is NOT among the common task-related sources of project conflict?
personalities
20.All of the following are among the steps of the negotiation process EXCEPT:
. use “good cop / bad cop” technique
Chapter 6 Test –
1.A project manager must use effective communications to set and manage expectations of all stakeholders as well as to ensure that project work is completed properly and on time.
True
2.A stakeholder is anyone who will use, will be affected by or could impact the project.
True
3.Stakeholders include people who have their routines disrupted by the project.
True
4.Project managers should purposefully plan and carry out relationship-building activities with stakeholders that lead to respect and trust.
True
5.The communications management plan is finalized during project planning, and should only be changed through a formal change control process.
False
6.Common purposes for project communications include status reporting and efforts to obtain approval of project outputs.
True
7.Contemporary project communications typically include both push methods such as blogs, and pull methods such as e-mail.
False
8.The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) process improvement model can be applied specifically to improving project meetings.
True
9.An issue log is a document that identifies the specific issues that must be resolved before a particular project management meeting adjourns.
False
10.During the Manage Communications process, project managers must continuously monitor relationships, communications, and lessons learned in order to manage stakeholder expectations.
False
11.________ is the process of the project team communicating and working with stakeholders to satisfy their needs (and additional desires, when possible), handle issues quickly and encourage active stakeholder participation throughout.
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
12.Stakeholders include all of the following people EXCEPT:
those who will not be impacted by the project
13.Which of these is NOT one of the three methods of communication that will be documented in a communication plan?
Virtual methods
14.Project stakeholders can be prioritized based upon their level of power, legitimacy and urgency plus a number of additional criteria that might include:
impact
15.The stakeholder register information can be used to evaluate the interests of different stakeholder groups by performing a _______ analysis to identify where there may be common areas of interest between the groups.
WIIFT (what’s-in-it-for-them)
16.In the Plus-Delta method of evaluating project meetings, the “delta” column is used for team members to offer their opinion about one aspect of the meeting that ________.
Was poor and could be avoided (changed) in future meetings
17.A principal idea in agile is that the length of daily stand-up meetings should be ___________.
15 minutes or less
18.In order to plan for a project meeting, project managers should develop an agenda. Which of the statements below is NOT accurate with respect to a project meeting agenda?
the agenda should only be shared with senior management.
19.A situation that requires a decision to be made, but one that the team that cannot make now, usually due to needing more information or time, is called a(n) _____:
issue
20.Once the project is underway, the project manager and team need to manage communications by doing all of the following activities EXCEPT:
Communicate thoroughly, copying all stakeholders on all e-mails and team status reports.
Chapter 6 Assignment
1.All of these are reasons why understanding project stakeholders is important to successful project management EXCEPT:
The customer who pays for the project is always the actual person who uses the project deliverables, and as the end user they fully understand their needs.
2.Which of these is an example of an internal stakeholder who would be impacted by the project process?
Competing Projects
3.One of these is NOT a criterion to consider when prioritizing stakeholders:
Attitude
4.When should the relationship building between the project manage / other core team members and important stakeholders occur?
Throughout the project
5.The old saying “What’s in it for me?” describes what each stakeholder wants, and there are a number of things that can be done to build a relationship between stakeholders and the core team. Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build these relationships?
Carefully review every communication prior to sharing it with stakeholders to make sure that it is politically correct.
6.Which of these is NOT one of the ways to build relationships with the core team?
Defer to the project manager for problem solving and decision making
7.One of these is NOT an important and necessary function of communications from stakeholders:
Reporting project progress.
8.Which of these is NOT a reason why effective communications to stakeholders are necessary?
Authorizing work.
9.Clarence and his team are working on a high profile project, and want to be sure that they are proactive about managing stakeholder expectations. What document can they refer to in order to understand their stakeholders’ assumptions?
Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
10.What are the characteristics of “pull” communications?
Communications are posted either on paper or in electronic form and stakeholders need to take the initiative to receive the communication.
11.All of these are types of project communications timing schedules EXCEPT:
Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA)
12.Which of the answers below is NOT information to be contained in the communications matrix?
Where will project meetings take place?
13. It is important to capture lessons learned in a knowledge database because _____________:
The organization will benefit from the capture and re-use of knowledge developed during the project.
14.The second-to-last item on a standard project team meeting agenda is _________:
Meeting summary
15.Which of these is NOT one of the three questions that each team member answers in an Agile standup meeting?
What issues they’ve encountered during this iteration and how they’ve resolved them.
Chapter 7 Test
1.The project scope is the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result with the required features and functions.
True
2.The priority of the product in agile is more significant than in traditional project management, as the outcome, or product, will drive the elaboration of the project.
True
3.The project scope statement establishes the project boundaries by stating what features and work elements are included (in scope) and which are excluded (out of scope).
. True
4.The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is normally developed by listing deliverables – major deliverables first and then progressively smaller ones until the team feels that every deliverable has been identified.
True
5.A Work Breakdown Structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective.
. False
6.A WBS dictionary is a document that defines each of the terms used in the project scope statement.
False
7.When a project team needs to construct a WBS, it needs to include in its planning team a subject matter expert (SME) who understands how each segment of the work will be accomplished.
True
8.A “top-down” approach to creating a WBS is typically used when a project is unique and different from previous projects.
False
9.It is important to assign a unique name and a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure.
True
10.Once the plan baseline has been approved and the project is underway, project teams deal with change by establishing and using a change control system to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule.
True
11.All of the following elements should be included in a project scope statement EXCEPT:
names of the project team members
12.On agile projects, the scope definition begins with :
large chunks of work, or features
13.It is helpful to list requirements and supporting information in a requirements traceability matrix. When requirements are complete, they should meet all of these criteria EXCEPT:
Assigned to a team member who will be the requirement owner
14.The method of dividing the project scope into many parts that, when combined, would constitute the project deliverable is called _____:
decomposition
15.A _______ is the approved project plan mainly consisting of scope, schedule, and cost that is not normally altered unless a formal change control request is approved for modifying these plans.
baseline.
16Which of the following is NOT a format that is typically used to represent a Work Breakdown Structure?
Requirements Traceability Matrix
17.The overall project is considered to be the first level of the WBS. All of the following methods can be used to organize the second level of the WBS EXCEPT:
Organized by activities and tasks
18.This technique is an iterative process that identifies and defines the work to be completely accomplished in the near term, and plans the future work at a higher level.
Rolling wave planning.
19.The work component at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed is called the ______:
work package
20.A _________ is a written request or formal proposal to propose changes to any project planning component such as a document, project deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and time).
change request
Chapter 7 Assignment
1.What is the first step in developing a project scope management plan?
. Identify stakeholders.
2.All of these are tasks that comprise the “define scope” process EXCEPT:
Identify work packages
3.For a construction project, the house is the _______ deliverable, and the how-to instructions are the _____ deliverable.
Product, project
4.Scope definition is a critical part of project planning. Which of these PMBOK Knowledge Areas does NOT use the defined scope as the foundation for their planning processes?
. Identify Stakeholders.
5.All of these could be common causes of scope creep EXCEPT:
The team defines project and product scope as well as exclusions, constraints and assumptions in a project scope statement.
6.What does the acronym WBS stand for?
Work Breakdown Structure
7.All of these are advantages of using a WBS EXCEPT:
To ensure all dates assigned to schedule activities are within the overall project timeline.
8.Which of these is NOT one of the three ways to organize a WBS?
The WBS is organized by PMBOK Knowledge Area.
9.The lowest level of a WBS is known as a _________:
Work package.
10.A document that provides more information about each work package by documenting details about the associated deliverable, activity, scheduling information, person responsible, resources required, etc. is called a ________:
WBS Dictionary
11.The planning technique of identifying and defining the work to be accomplished in the near term completely, and planning the future work at a higher level, is called ___________:
Rolling Wave Planning
12.Uncontrolled change is known as:
Scope creep.
13.The processes to receive and review change proposals and accept or reject them after evaluating their impact on project scope, cost and schedule is managed through _________:
Change control system.
14.Which of these is NOT a typical section in a change request form?
Impact on other projects.
15.A ________ is the approved project plan for scope, schedule, and cost that is not altered unless a formal change request is approved.
Baseline
Chapter 8 Assignment –
1.According to PMI, after planning schedule management, the next process in project time management is to ___________.
Define activities
2.In order to be useful as schedule building blocks, activities should have certain characteristics. Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics that an activity should have?
It is the element at the lowest level of the WBS and has a deliverable associated with it
3.What is another name for the Activity-on-Node (AON) network diagramming technique?
Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
4.Which of these is NOT a typical situation for creating a project schedule milestone?
Time for weekly project meetings
5.The schedule activity that follows a predecessor activity, as determined by their logical relationship, is called a ________.
Successor activity
6.Which of these four most common types of logical dependencies would be represented by the situation “the carton must be sealed and labelled before the package can be shipped?”
Finish-to-start (FS)
7.Potential problems can occur with activity duration estimating when omissions are made. All of these are potential remedies for this problem EXCEPT:
Rolling wave planning
8.7Which of these is NOT one of the actions that should be completed during the Two-Pass Method of determining the critical path?
List all of the paths through the network
9.If an activity on the critical path falls behind schedule, what effect will this have on the entire project?
It will increase the length of the entire project by the amount of schedule slippage for the activity
10.If a painted room must dry for four hours before work can continue, the result is a delay in the successor activity. The wait for paint to dry is an example of a __________.
. Lag
11.A professor who always grades on a curve cannot finish scoring the midterm exams until all of the students have completed taking the test. What kind of relationship is this?
Finish-to-finish (FF)
12.Which of these is NOT an advantage of using Monte Carlo analysis for predicting a project schedule?
It uses three time estimates – Optimistic, Pessimistic, and Most Likely.
13.Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?
Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.
14.All of the following describe the appropriate application of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis in project management EXCEPT:
Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible.
15.Which of the following describes how the team uses a cause-and-effect diagram to support project risk analysis?
The team lists the risk as the “effect” in a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones.
16.Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in Figure 10-1. Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses?
C – IS resources are spread too thin
17.Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques is used to determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project, with results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram?
Sensitivity Analysis
18.All of the following describe an appropriate application of Plan Risk Responses in project management EXCEPT:
Responses should be created for every identified project risk, regardless of the risk scor
19.All of the following are among the classic risk response strategies EXCEPT:
share a threat
20. Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to research a threat or an opportunity?
construct a prototype to learn more about a candidate solutio
Chapter 11 Assignment
1.A negative impact is known as a (n) ______, while a positive impact is known as a (n) __________.
Threat, Opportunity
2.Who should be involved in identifying potential risks for a project?
Everyone
3.Which of these is NOT one of the typical project success measures?
Quality Improvements
4.Risks are typically discovered during which stage(s) of a project?
Initiating, Planning, Executing and Closing
5.Relative to the project life cycle, when is the cost per risk discovered typically highest?
Closing
6.What does a SWOT Analysis examine?
Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats
7.A _________ is an analytical technique to ascertain the fundamental reason or reasons that affect one or more variances, defects or risks.
Root Cause Analysis
8.All of these are ways of categorizing project risks EXCEPT:
Who identified the risk.
9.A key supplier of materials for your project has not been returning your calls or responding to your e-mails. This is an example of a ________, which indicates that a risk is likely to occur.
Trigger condition
10.During which risk planning process is each risk assigned a probability and impact score?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
11. The risk factor of each risk, determined during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, is derived by ______ the probability and the consequence (impact).
Multiplying
12.What type of risk analysis is NOT required on all projects?
Quantitative Risk Analysis
13.A Fortune 100 company is about to undertake a $30 million construction project to build a new office building. As a condition of hiring a general contractor to build the property, they require the contractor to secure a performance bond to guarantee their work and performance under this construction contract. This is an example of _______ project risk.
Transferring
14.All of the following information is typically contained in the risk register EXCEPT:
Date risk identified
15.In the risk register, why should one person be designated as the “owner” of the risk?
So that they can be responsible for determining if it’s about to be triggered, and implementing the strategy
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