1. A contract is a unilateral document that binds a seller to provide specified products and services under terms agreeable to the buyer.   False
2. A matrix organization is any organizational structure in which the project manager has access to team members, but the functional manager retains responsibility for assigning priorities and directing the work of persons assigned to the project.  False
3. A matrix organization is any organizational structure in which the project manager shares responsibility with the functional managers for assigning priorities and directing the work of persons assigned to the project.  True
4. A narrative description of the products, services or results to be supplied under a contract is known as:  the contract statement of work.
5. A risk is anything that may impact the project team’s ability to achieve the general project success measures and the specific project stakeholder priorities.  True
6. A scheduled activity that determines when a logical successor activity can begin and end is known as:  a predecessor activity
7. A Work Breakdown Structure must be decomposed at least four levels in order to be effective.  False
8. All project teams progress uniformly through five stages of team development   False
9. Almost all projects have deliverables related to training, service or other means of helping the customer to use the project’s product effectively.   True
10. Among the most important attributes required of project managers are integrity, leadership and strong communication skills.   True
11. Buying from an outside supplier to meet project needs is generally frowned upon because it invariably proves to be more expensive than obtaining materials and services internally.   False
12. Change control includes which of the following activities?   identifying, documenting and approving changes to project baselines
13. Communications planning determines the information needs and expectations for project stakeholders.   True
14. Crashing is a project schedule compression technique that relies extensively on overlapping activities and a high degree of concurrency.  False
15. Detailed project progress should be reported to stakeholders and clients frequently typically on a daily basis.   False
16. DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches?  Six Sigma
17. DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thusbe practiced repeatedly within a single process to further improve process performance   True
18. DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly within a single process to further improve process performance.  True
19. During which stage of team development do team members attempt to jockey for power, ask many questions and establish dubious goals?   storming
20. Each potential change to a project is normally documented by some sort of change request.  True
21. Earned Value (EV) is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work to be accomplished. False
22. Effective conflict management skills are rarely useful on successful project teams.   False
23. Estimates of the likely amount a project will cost should always include an indication of accuracy.  True
24. Even small delays on “nearcritical” activities can change the critical path of a project.  True
25. Except in rare circumstances, project teams should not attempt to decompose work packages into project activities because work packages provide sufficient detail to develop a project schedule.  False
26. Fact-based management includes four key ideas. Which of the following is among the key ideas associated with fact-based management  the need to understand variation
27. High-performing teams include members who typically hold which of the following values?  a high need for achievement
28. In order for activities to be useful as schedule building blocks, they should have tangible output that can be verified.  True
29. In some cases, project teams will elect to reduce a threat rather than eliminate it because the effort to completely eliminate a threat is unjustified.  True
30. It is important to assign a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure.  True
31. It is impossible to remove all sources of risk on a project.   True
32. Leadership within a project team should be demonstrated only by the project manager.  False
33. Most projects will employ bottomup estimating at some point to serve as a basis for estimating cash flow needs and for controlling the project.  True
34. On complex projects, despite the importance of factors such as technical capability, managerial capability and previous experience; the ultimate driving factor is almost always the price of the proposal.  False
35. On many small, simple projects the quality planning is performed concurrently with other planning and the quality plan is seamlessly incorporated into the project plan   True
36. One useful method of process improvement involves consideration of how another organization performs a process with an eye toward determining how to improve your own performance. This method is known as:  benchmarking.
37. Partnering seeks to recast relations between actors in projects by promoting the use of Collaborative, more open relationships.   True
38. Proactive project managers realize that conducting clear, succinct, one-way communication is a major key to their team’s success.  False
39. Project managers can further team development by securing agreement on common goals and objectives for the project.  True
40. Project managers interested in controlling quality on projects will often concentrate upon project inputs. Which of the following are important considerations for the project managers concentrating on inputs to ensure project quality?   ensure the workers assigned are capable of doing their work
41. Project team member preferences related to the type and frequency of communication may vary depending upon the country of origin.   True
42. Quality assurance is monitoring specific results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards.  False
43. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability and impact.  False
44. Six Sigma is a quality improvement approach that is particularly suited for processes that are difficult if not impossible to measure.   False
45. Some organizations rely upon a formally constituted group of stakeholders to review, evaluate and approve changes to the project. This group is typically known as a:  change control board.
46. Stakeholders include those affected by the result of the project, but not those affected by the process of performing the project   False
47. Strategic analysis considers opportunities and threats posed by competitors, suppliers and regulatory agencies among others.   True
48. Strategic objectives should focus decisions regarding which projects to select and how to prioritize them.     True
49. Supply chain operations require managerial processes that span across functional areas within individual organizations.  True
50. The best project scope statements are brief, succinct and limit their focus specifically to the work to be performed.  False
51. The cost per risk for risks discovered early in the project is often more than the cost per risk for risks discovered late because there is more opportunity for the risk to impact several dimensions of the project.   False
52. The Cost Variance (CV) is a measure of cost efficiency on a project.   False
53. The critical path is the sequence of activities that form the shortest path through the project network and determine the duration of the project.  False
54. The first process in developing a project schedule is to identify all the resources available to work on the project.  False
55. The process of deciding how to approach, plan and execute risk management activities for a project is known as Project Risk Absorption Methodology (PRAM).  False
56. The process of determining what to purchase or acquire and determining when and how to do so is known as:   plan purchasing and acquisitions.
57. The process of improving the competencies and interaction of team members to enhance project performance is known as:   develop project team
58. The procurement management plan:   describes how procurement processes will be managed.
59. The project communications matrix is a tool that identifies the project stakeholders, what they need to know and when they need to know it.  True
60. The project scope is the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result  True
61. The purpose of a check sheet is to quickly understand the primary causes of a particular problem using the 80/20 rule.   False
62. The purpose of quality control on projects is to reduce the number of defects in deliverables rather than to improve the project process.  False
63. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a measure of schedule efficiency on a project.  True
64. The signing of the project charter signals the transition from the highlevel project initiating stage into the more detailed project planning stage.  True
65. The standard approach to making decisions on a project is to clearly and consistently vest decision making authority in the project manager.  False
66. The total amount of time a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project finish date is known as:  slack
67. Traditional financial models are most useful when there are multiple projects and several criteria to consider.  False
68. When a decision needs to be made quickly or requires significant authority it is often useful to delegate the decision to one or two team members.   False
69. When a firm plans to contract, it generally prepares evaluation criteria that define how the client company will evaluate and rank proposals received from bidders   True
70. When a project team elects to purchase insurance, or adopts a fixed price contract with a vendor, or hires external experts it is demonstrating which of the following risk response strategies?  transfer a threat
71. When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning.  True
72. When determining resource availability, projects managers need only consider fulltime, internal resources. False
73. When developing a project schedule, slack refers to the time between the start and the finish of a planned activity   False
74. When discrepancies are identified during a project quality audit, the presumption must be that workers failed to comply with procedures and should be reprimanded accordingly.   False
75. When project managers authorize project work, they should empower others to the extent possible, yet control to the extent necessary.  True
76. When resource overloads are extreme, project managers may need to consider the acquisition of additional resources, reductions in scope or extensions to the project schedule.  True
77. Which of the following accurately describes risk in project management?  The impact of risk may be positive or negative.
78. Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to mitigate a threat?  train a team member to cover for a potentially unavailable key resource
79. Which of the following are among the challenges faced by project managers?  They must determine how networks of people function in the organization.
80. Which of the following contract types is most appropriate when costs are not well known and the buyer absorbs the cost risk   CostPlusFixedFee (CPFF)
81. Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during qualitative risk analysis?   Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.
82. Which of the following describes the appropriate use of a cause and effect diagram to support project risk analysis?  It is often easier to alter the effect by changing the underlying cause.
83. Which of the following describes the effective use of a risk register?  Items such as the probability of occurrence and impact are typically added to the risk register subsequent to risk identification.
84. Which of the following documents describes how the project management team will implement the performing organization’s quality policy?  the quality management plan
85. Which of the following executive roles is generally responsible for priority setting, project and sponsor selection, as well as general guidance and encouragement?  Steering Team
86. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with managing projects in a projectized organization?  Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized.
87. Which of the following is among the widely accepted project team success factors?  effective communication including performance feedback
88. Which of the following items best describe the process steps to construct a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?  identify major deliverables divide into smaller deliverables continue until right size review
89. Which of the following measures is best suited for determining whether the project is on, ahead or behind schedule?   Schedule Variance (SV)
90. Which of the following organizational structures is designed to achieve a balance of task focus and technical capability?  matrix organization
91. Which of the following processes are considered to be among the six project procurement management processes?   contract administration
92. Which of the following remedies may reduce the likelihood of omissions when developing activity duration estimates?  checklists, templates, WBS
93. Which of the following responses identifies a common type of logical dependency used to sequence project activities?  finish-tostart
94. Which of the following statements accurately describes a project management plan?  a formal document that defines how the project is executed, monitored and controlled
95. Which of the following statements accurately describes the approach that project managers should take to develop relationships with key stakeholders?   Project managers should seek to understand what motivates each stakeholder.
96. Which of the following statements is consistent with the ideas that W. Edwards Deming promoted regarding quality management  Understanding variation is essential to improving quality.
97. While a “RACI” chart may be very useful for assigning activities to core team members and project managers, the sheer number of subject matter experts on many projects renders the RACI chart impractical for large projects.  False
98. While there is a wide variety of projects across organizations, the degree of formality used in selecting them is largely uniform.  False

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