GE5103 QUIZ

  1. A contract is a unilateral document that binds a seller to provide specified products and services under terms agreeable to the buyer.  False
  2. A control limit is what the customer will accept, whereas a tolerance limit reflects what the process can consistently deliver when things are behaving normally.  False
  3. A description of the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services or results is known as:  the procurement statement of work.
  4. A risk is anything that may impact the project team’s ability to achieve the general project success measures and the specific project stakeholder priorities.   True
  5. All of the following accurately apply to project performance reporting EXCEPT:  The same report format should be used for all stakeholders
  6. All of the following accurately describe earned value management EXCEPT:   It is good for performance reporting but not for forecasting
  7. All of the following activities are appropriate upon completion of risk response planning EXCEPT:  The risk register should be baselined after planning is completed, and should not be updated once the project is in flight.
  8. All of the following are advantages associated with assigning both core team members and subject matter experts to the project as soon as possible EXCEPT:  early assignment of resources saves the project money
  9. All of the following are among the activities a project manager should undertake to develop a highly effective team EXCEPT:   assess sponsor capability
  10. All of the following are among the classic risk response strategies EXCEPT:   share a threat
  11. All of the following are among the common sources of project conflict EXCEPT:  personalities
  12. All of the following are benefits that can be attributed to the effective use of a risk management plan EXCEPT:   It enables the project manager to identify and eliminate all risks
  13. All of the following are performance improvements likely to be realized by projects that make good project sourcing decisions EXCEPT:  improved employee benefits
  14. All of the following describe the appropriate application of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis in project management EXCEPT:     Brainstorming techniques are used by the team and other stakeholders to identify as many project risks as possible.
  15. All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT:  All of these
  16. All of the following items are valid reasons to conduct a project kick-off meeting EXCEPT:  to emphasize that all decisions will be made exclusively by the project manager
  17. All of the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT:    It is inherent in the system and is predictable
  18. All project teams progress uniformly through five stages of team development.  False
  19. Change control includes which of the following activities?     identifying, documenting, approving or rejecting, and controlling changes to project baselines
  20. Conflict over the best approach can be useful since it may bring out creative discussion and lead to better methods.  True
  21. Detailed project progress should be reported to stakeholders and clients frequently – typically on a daily basis.  False
  22. DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches?     Six Sigma
  23. DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly within a single process to further improve process performance.  True
  24. Earned Value (EV) is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work to be accomplished.   False
  25. Effective conflict management skills are rarely useful on successful project teams.   False
  26. Evaluations of prospective suppliers by project teams often involve which of the following approaches?   all of these
  27. Fact-based management includes four key ideas. Which of the following is among the key ideas associated with fact-based management?   the need to understand variation
  28. Fact-based management requires an understanding that variation can be either common or special cause, a determination to discover which type, and the resolve to act appropriately upon that discovery.   True
  29. Fixed price contracts provide low risk for the seller, since the buyer will pay a fixed price, regardless of how much the project actually costs the seller.  False
  30. Generally, once risks have been identified and analyzed, the project team decides how to handle each risk.  True
  31. Great team synergy can help make a team’s capability better than the individual team member’s capabilities.  True
  32. High-performing teams include members who typically hold which of the following values?  a high need for achievement
  33. Information is power. Withholding or distorting project information is a viable and potentially useful approach to increase power for the project manager.  False
  34. Inspection is keeping errors out of process while prevention is trying to find errors so they do not get to the customer.  False
  35. It is impossible to remove all sources of risk on a project.   True
  36. It is often costly, difficult or even impossible to inspect an entire sample. When that is the case, it is best to inspect the population.   False
  37. Joseph Juran is credited for developing the Quality Trilogy that includes quality monitoring, quality assurance and quality control.   False
  38. Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to control quality. Which of the following items is consistent with his quality control guidance?   establish measurement systems
  39. Leadership within a project team should be demonstrated only by the project manager   false
  40. Often a project team will start the selection process by establishing a list of potential suppliers. All of the following information sources are frequently used to identify these potential suppliers EXCEPT:  stakeholder register
  41. On complex projects, despite the importance of factors such as technical capability, managerial capability and previous experience; the ultimate driving factor is almost always the price of the proposal.  False
  42. Partnering seeks to recast relations between actors in projects by promoting the use of collaborative, more open relationships.  True
  43. Perform Quality Assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements, and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.     True
  44. Project managers can further team development by securing agreement on common goals and objectives for the project.  True
  45. Project managers can identify risks by learning and understanding the cause and effect relationships that bear on risk events. All of the following approaches rely upon an understanding of cause and effect relationships to identify risks EXCEPT:    list all risks in a risk register
  46. Project managers interested in controlling quality on projects will often concentrate upon project inputs. Which of the following are important considerations for the project managers concentrating on inputs to ensure project quality?   ensure the workers assigned are capable of doing their work
  47. Project partnerships offer which of the following advantages to both clients and vendors?  shared motivation
  48. Project teams often adopt ground rules to address which of the following process topics?  managing meetings
  49. Project teams often adopt ground rules to address which of the following relationship topics?  protecting confidentiality
  50. Report Performance is the process of collecting and distributing performance information and typically includes all of the following EXCEPT:   managing stakeholder expectations
  51. Some organizations rely upon a formally constituted group of stakeholders to review, evaluate and approve changes to the project. This group is typically known as a:    change control board.
  52. Sometimes firms develop a qualified sellers list and only allow those companies on the list to submit a proposal on the upcoming project.  True
  53. Sometimes the risks posed by a project are so great that an appropriate risk response is to not perform the project at all   true
  54. Stakeholder satisfaction requires an understanding of the ultimate quality goals with respect to stakeholders.  True
  55. Supply chain operations require managerial processes that span across functional areas within individual organizations.  True
  56. Supply chains use a combination of modes of transportation including: air, rail, water, pipeline and trucks.  True
  57. The Cost Variance (CV) is a measure of cost efficiency on a project.  False
  58. The extent to which a project relies upon internal sources for materials and services varies from one project to another and from one organization to another.  true
  59. The formality of a kick-off meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.  True
  60. The personal values of team members on high-performing teams can be enhanced through all of the following effective communication practices EXCEPT:  encouragement of personal conflict
  61. The personal values of team members on high-performing teams can be enhanced through which of the following team behavior practices?  a constant focus on improvement
  62. The primary output of risk identification is the Risk Identification Matrix (RIM).   False
  63. The process of deciding how to approach, plan and execute risk management activities for a project is known as Project Risk Absorption Methodology (PRAM)   false
  64. The process of determining which risks might affect the project and documenting their characteristics is known as risk charting.  False
  65. The process of improving the competencies, team interaction, and the overall team environment to enhance project performance is known as  Develop project team
  66. The procurement management plan:  describes how procurement processes will be managed.
  67. The quality policy on a specific project should defer the quality policies of the parent organization when major customer needs and policies create a conflict.  False
  68. The risk management plan is the document that describes how project risk management will be structured and performed on a project.  True
  69. The value of engaging a subject matter expert early in a project should be balanced against the potentially significant cost of paying for his or her expertise.  True
  70. Traditional project procurement was characterized by a win-lose attitude, whereas contemporary project partnering fosters an equal partner attitude.  True
  71. Traditional project procurement was characterized by relatively few contract claims, whereas contemporary project partnering has resulted in a significant increase in the frequency of contract claims.  False
  72. W. Edwards Deming argued that managers must understand cause and effect relationships to predict future behavior.  True
  73. When a decision needs to be made quickly or requires significant authority it is often useful to delegate the decision to one or two team members.  False
  74. When a project manager asks clarifying questions and paraphrases what is being communicated to them, he or she is using   Active listening
  75. When a project team elects to purchase insurance, or adopts a fixed price contract with a vendor, or hires external experts – it is demonstrating which of the following risk response strategies?   transfer a threat
  76. When a project team member is not performing, rewards may not prove as effective as a coercive approach that threatens the team member with undesired consequences.  True
  77. When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning.  True
  78. When discrepancies are identified during a project quality audit, the presumption must be that workers failed to comply with procedures and should be reprimanded accordingly.  False
  79. When project managers authorize project work, they should empower others to the extent possible, yet control to the extent necessary.  True
  80. When reporting performance to sponsors and management, it is often helpful to organize the information in terms of three time periods: the past, the current and the future.  true
  81. When the impact of an event is negative, it is considered a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity.  False
  82. When using a control chart, a point that occurs above the upper control limit typically means the variation is enough that it is not likely to have happened purely by chance – rather some sort of special cause explains the variation.  true
  83. Which of the following accurately describes risk in project management?   The impact of risk may be positive or negative
  84. Which of the following activities illustrates a risk response strategy designed to mitigate a threat?     train a team member to cover for a potentially unavailable key resource
  85. Which of the following contract types is most appropriate when costs are NOT well known and the buyer absorbs the cost risk?  Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
  86. Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?   Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.
  87. Which of the following documents describes how the project management team will implement the performing organization’s quality policy?  the quality management plan
  88. Which of the following factors should be considered when a project team evaluates a “make or buy” decision to procure services?  advantages and disadvantages of outsourcing in terms of performance control
  89. Which of the following is one of the PMBOK’s four project procurement management processes?  Administer procurements
  90. Which of the following measures is best suited for determining whether the project is on, ahead or behind schedule?  Schedule Variance (SV)
  91. Which of the following quality management thought leaders is generally credited with contributing the insight that team learning is necessary to improve quality?  Senge
  92. Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques relies upon the calculation of net present value to determine if a project should be pursued or abandoned?   Financial Engineering
  93. Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful?   An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all.
  94. Which of the following serves as an important guideline concerning project inspections?  inspect at milestones identified in the project schedule
  95. Which of the following statements is consistent with the ideas that W. Edwards Deming promoted regarding quality management?   Understanding variation is essential to improving quality.
  96. Which of the following styles of handling conflict is most appropriate whenever there is enough time, trust can be established, the issue is important to both sides and buy-in is needed?  Collaborating
  97. Which of the following tools is displayed as a special type of scatter diagram used to see how a variable of interest changes over time?   run chart
  98. Which of the following types of contracts involves payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit?   cost-reimbursable contract

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