1. A contract is a unilateral document that obligates the seller to provide specified products and services under terms agreeable to the buyer. A. False
2. A description of the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services or results is known as: A. the procurement statement of work
3. A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a “Plan-Do-Check-Act” (PDCA) model. A. False
4. A method for documenting and sharing lessons must be established in order for an organization to capitalize on lessons learned. A. True
5. A project manager leads by placing the demands of the parent organization and the project above the needs of the project team members. A. False
6. A project organization can serve as either the buyer or the seller in a project related contract. A. True
7. A project team attempting to close a project should review all of the following documents to ensure that everything promised was delivered EXCEPT: A. the stakeholder register
8. A project team attempting to close a project should review which of the following to ensure the customers are satisfied with the project work? A. the customer feedback and scope verification
9. A source of variation that is inherent in a system and predictable is typically known as: A. common cause variation
10. A tolerance limit is what the customer will accept, whereas a control limit reflects what the process can consistently deliver when things are behaving normally. A. True
11. After completing detailed planning for a project, it is often helpful for the project manager and team to apply a sanity test to the project plan. Which of the following accurately describes the application of a sanity test? A. It should include questions to ensure budgets, schedules and resource plans are reasonable and achievable.
12. All of the following accurately apply to project performance reporting EXCEPT: A. The same report format should be used for all stakeholders
13. All of the following accurately describe earned value management EXCEPT: A. It is good for performance reporting but not for forecasting
14. All of the following accurately describe skills that an owner’s representative can use during the project when making tradeoffs EXCEPT: A. Inspecting quality into the project
15. All of the following accurately describe the features and characteristics of a contract EXCEPT: A. The project organization is always a buyer in a contract arrangement
16. All of the following are advantages associated with assigning both core team members and subject matter experts to the project as soon as possible EXCEPT: A. early assignment of SMEs to the project saves money
17. All of the following are among ground rules that have proven widely useful to project teams EXCEPT A. avoid conflict at all costs
18. All of the following are among the activities a project manager should undertake to develop a highly effective team EXCEPT: A. assess sponsor capability
19. All of the following are among the common task-related sources of project conflict EXCEPT: A. personalities
20. All of the following are among the methods project managers can use to develop individual and team capabilities EXCEPT: A. utilize coercive powers
21. All of the following are among the steps of the negotiation process EXCEPT: A. use “good cop / bad cop” technique
22. All of the following are among the types of capabilities that are useful for project team members EXCEPT: A. insensitivity towards others
23. All of the following describe benefits associated with celebrating the completion of a project EXCEPT: A. Celebrations are held in conjunction with team performance reviews
24. All of the following entities are typically included in the supply chain EXCEPT: A. public relations
25. All of the following factors are commonly used to assess potential suppliers pursuant to a source selection decision EXCEPT: A. personal relationships with senior management
26. All of the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award EXCEPT: A. Team Learning
27. All of the following items are generally considered when selecting the right type of contract EXCEPT: A. project organization’s accounting system
28. All of the following items are valid reasons to conduct a project kick-off meeting EXCEPT: A. to emphasize that all decisions will be made exclusively by the project manager
29. All of the following items contribute to developing empowered performance in an organization EXCEPT: A. accepting the fact that the project manager has total decision making authority
30. All of the following practices have proven effective for managing lessons learned in an organization EXCEPT: A. documenting all lessons learned only at the end of the project.
31. All of the following reasons explain why it is better to design quality into processes than to find problems through inspections EXCEPT: A. The best inspectors should find every variation and defect
32. All of the following reasons might lead to a contract termination for default EXCEPT: A. changing customer priorities
33. All of the following represent common methods for making decisions on contemporary project teams EXCEPT: A. The sponsor is asked to make all of the decisions
34. All of the following statements accurately describe special cause variation EXCEPT: A. It is inherent in the system and is predictable
35. All of the following statements accurately describe supply chain management EXCEPT: A. It is a closed-loop system solely within the project organization’s boundaries
36. All of these are factors that could lead to a decision to buy or outsource rather than make or perform in-house, EXCEPT: A. more control over quality and time
37. All project teams progress uniformly through five stages of team development. A. False
38. Among the disadvantages associated with outsourcing is the gradual loss of special skills for doing some specific activities that have been outsourced. A. True
39. Any of the following attributes can serve as a useful factor for coding lessons learned EXCEPT: A. lessons learned owner
40. Assembling the right quantity and variety of skills and experience for the project team can be quite challenging. One strategy is to staff the project with a combination of experienced and less experienced workers. All of the following are benefits associated with this approach EXCEPT: A. The project manager can dominate the more junior team members
41. Buying from an outside supplier to meet project needs is a practice that is rarely used, because it invariably proves to be more expensive than obtaining materials and services internally. A. False
42. Celebrations of success ease the stress of working hard for a prolonged period of time trying to accomplish a project. A. True
43. Change control includes which of the following activities? A. identifying, documenting, approving or rejecting, modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines
44. Closure of a project generally entails all of the following activities EXCEPT: A. updating the project management plan
45. Conflict over ideas on how to proceed with a project can lead to more creative approaches. A. True
46. Contract incentives are often used when the buyer wants to maximize some aspect of performance, such as finishing the project early or providing a higher level of quality. A. True
47. Control quality generally includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Using management by objectives
48. Crosby, a well known quality management thought leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them. A. True
49. DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve and Control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches? A. Six Sigma
50. DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly. A. True
51. During procurement planning, the project team determines which needs can best be met by acquiring products and services from an outside provider, and which can be accomplished by the team. A. True
52. During which DMAIC phase would you find the objectives of identify possible root causes, collect data, and confirm root causes through data analysis? A. Analyze
53. During which stage of team development do team members attempt to jockey for power, ask many questions and establish dubious goals? A. storming
54. Early termination can be either for default or for the convenience of the seller. A. False
55. Earned Value (EV) is the authorized budget assigned to the scheduled work. A. False
56. Effective project partnerships generally require shared responsibilities, shared resources, shared information, shared rights and shared risks between suppliers and customers A. True
57. Evaluations of prospective suppliers by project teams often involve all of the following approaches EXCEPT: A. prototyping
58. Extensive supplier evaluation approaches such as surveys, facility visits and financial analysis should be applied to first-tier suppliers only. A. False
59. Fact-based management includes four key ideas. Which of the following is among the key ideas associated with fact-based management? A. the need to understand variation
60. Fact-based management requires an understanding of variation, deciding what to measure, working correctly with data, and using the resulting information appropriately. A. True
61. Fixed price contracts provide low risk for the seller, since the buyer will pay a fixed price, regardless of how much the project actually costs the seller. A. False
62. For risk events partially within project control, resolution strategies include working with clients to reprioritize cost, schedule, scope or quality and carefully escalate problems. A. True
63. Frequently, project managers lack legitimate power based upon position and instead resort to persuading others based upon personal relationships. This type of power is known as: A. referent power
64. Great team synergy can make a team’s capability better than the individual members’ capabilities. A. True
65. High-performing project teams will typically persevere despite challenges, produce high quality results and consistently meet or exceed stakeholder expectations. A. True
66. High-performing teams include members who typically hold which of the following values? A. a high need for achievement
67. If necessary, the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer. A. False
68. In a control chart, a point that occurs above the upper control limit typically means that some sort of special cause is creating the variation and requires a specific intervention. A. True
69. In agile projects, communication is frequent and rapid. Progress report meetings are held every morning as brief 15 minute standup meetings. A. False
70. In many cases, the proposal prepared by the vendor becomes a part of the final contract. A. True
71. In order to determine that a project is progressing adequately, a project manager could use a balanced scorecard approach to evaluate the organization along supplier, external business, risk and human resource perspectives. A. False
72. In which of the following tools would a normal or bell-shaped curve be expected if no special conditions are occurring? A. histogram
73. Information is a key ingredient at each stage of the project supply chain, as well as within each phase of supply chain decision making. A. True
74. information is power. Withholding or distorting project information is a viable and potentially useful approach to increase power for the project manager. A. False
75. Inspection is keeping errors out of process while prevention is trying to find errors so they do not get to the customer. A. False
76. It is argued that project teams progress through five stages of team development. Which of the following sequences best represents this progression? A. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
77. It is often costly, difficult or even impossible to inspect an entire sample. When that is the case, it is best to inspect the population. A. False
78. Joseph Juran is credited for developing the Quality Trilogy that includes quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. A. True
79. Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning. All of the following items are consistent with his quality planning guidance EXCEPT: A. quality must be inspected into the process
80. Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to control quality. Which of the following items is consistent with his quality control guidance? A. establish measurement systems
81. Leadership within a project team should be demonstrated only by the project manager. A. False
82. Lean purchasing refers to a manufacturing context where just-in-time (JIT) tools are used to ensure that every step in the supply process adds value, while costs are kept to a minimum. A. True
83. Lessons learned can include significant project successes. A. True
84. Logistics is the work required to move and position inventory throughout a supply chain. A. True
85. Many conflicts on projects have multiple causes. A.True
86. Many organizations require the completion of a project close-out report upon completion of a project. These reports typically include which of the following? A. a review of the project’s original justification
87. Monitoring and controlling project work refers to the processes of tracking, reviewing and reporting progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project plan. A. True
88. More organizations effectively collect lessons learned than effectively disseminate and use them. A. True
89. Often a project team will start the selection process by establishing a list of potential suppliers. All of the following information sources are frequently used to identify these potential suppliers EXCEPT: A. stakeholder register
90. On complex projects, despite the importance of factors such as technical capability, managerial capability and previous experience; the selection decision is made mostly or entirely on price. A. False
91. On long projects it is often better to capture lessons frequently since people may not remember clearly what happened several months previously. A. True
92. On many small, simple projects the quality planning is performed concurrently with other planning and the quality plan is seamlessly incorporated into the project plan. A. True
93. On some projects, some deliverables remain incomplete at project close-out. Activities that are not complete should be itemized, and responsibility for each should be clearly identified.
A. True
94. One important way to build team capacity is to create a desirable team identity. A. True
95. One of the important factors that should influence the selection of contract type is the degree of risk for the seller and the buyer that each contract type contains. A. True
96. One useful method of process improvement involves consideration of how another organization performs a process with an eye toward determining how to improve your own performance. This method is known as: A. benchmarking.
97. Outputs of Plan Procurement Management include the procurement management plan and procurement statement of work. A. True
98. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. A. False
99. Perform Quality Assurance is monitoring specific results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards. A. False
100. Perform Quality Assurance is the process of auditing the quality requirements, and the results from quality control measurements to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used. A. True
101. Proactive project managers realize that conducting clear, succinct, one-way communication is a major key to their team’s success. A. False
102. Project close-out checklists are used by many organizations to assign responsibility to each item concerning project closeout. A. True
103. Project manager strategies to promote organization, project and team member needs may vary from one stage of team development to another. A. True
104. Project managers can further team development by securing agreement on common goals and objectives for the project. A. True
105. Project managers interested in controlling quality on projects will often concentrate upon project inputs. Which of the following are important considerations for the project managers concentrating on inputs to ensure project quality? A. ensure the workers assigned are capable of doing their work
106. Project managers should empower team members to the extent possible, yet control to the extent necessary. A. True
107. Project partnerships can be advantageous to both the client and the vendor, in terms of improved project execution, flexibility, and reduced bid administration. A. True
108. Project partnerships offer all of the following advantages to vendors EXCEPT: A. the buyer gains at the vendor’s expense
109. Project partnerships offer which of the following advantages to both clients and vendors? A. shared motivation
110. Project quality is defined as the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements. A. True
111. Project stakeholders will judge the quality of project work processes as well as project deliverables. A. True
112. Project teams often adopt ground rules to address which of the following relationship topics? A. protect confidentiality
113. Project teams often adopt ground rules to address which of the following process topics? A. manage meetings
114. Reward power relies upon persuading others based upon giving them some form of reward. It is most appropriately used when: A. a team member performs well.
115. Since projects are temporary in nature and the project team disbands upon completion, it is not necessary for project managers to provide ongoing support in the form of training or change management. A. False
116. Six Sigma is a quality improvement approach that is particularly suited for many service processes that people had previously said were too difficult if not impossible to measure. A. True
117. Some organizations rely upon a formally chartered group of stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating and approving changes to the project. This group is typically known as a: A. change control board.
118. Some project sponsors will only approve a project charter if it includes and reflects lessons learned from other recently completed projects. A. True
119. Some project sponsors will only approve a project charter if it includes and reflects lessons learned from other recently completed projects. A. True
120. Some scope changes start as proposed changes to cost or schedule, just as some changes to cost or schedule start as proposed scope changes. A. True
121. Sometimes a project is terminated before its normal completion. A. True
122. Stakeholder satisfaction requires an understanding of the ultimate quality goals with respect to stakeholders. A. True
123. Supply chain management focuses exclusively upon the parties directly involved in providing supplies to the project team. A. False
124. Supply chain operations require managerial processes that span across functional areas within individual organizations, and link trading partners and customers across organizational boundaries. A. True
125. Supply chains use a combination of modes of transportation including: air, rail, water, pipeline and truck. A. True
126. The “relationship” topics within team ground rules, such as protect confidentiality and avoid misunderstandings, should eliminate the need for conflict management techniques. A. False
127. The adoption of specific ground rules that specify acceptable and unacceptable behaviors can help prevent potential problems and improve working relationships, effectiveness, and communication. A.True
128. The control quality process deals with using correct policies and convincing stakeholders that the project team is capable of producing good output. A. False
129. The Cost Variance (CV) is a measure of cost efficiency of budgeted resources on a project, expressed as the ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC). A. False
130. The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT: A. design work systems
131. The evaluation criteria developed during procurement planning should guide the vendor evaluation and selection. A. True
132. The formality of a kick-off meeting can vary considerably depending on the size and type of project.\ A. True
133. The four core project quality concepts include which of the following? A. stakeholder satisfaction
134. The goal of empowered performance is to improve performance results each and every period. A. False
135. The ideal time to on-board core team members is to include them in the chartering process. A. True
136. The International Organization for Standardization developed a quality management standard that relies upon several quality management areas including management, resources and realization. A. True
137. The negotiation process involves several steps such as: preparing for negotiation; knowing your walk-away point; and working towards a common goal. A. True
138. The outputs of Control Quality may include recommended preventive actions designed to ensure the future performance of project work is aligned with the project management plan. A. True
139. The personal values of team members on high-performing teams can be enhanced through which of the following team behavior practices? A. constant focus on improvement
140. The personal values of team members on high-performing teams can be enhanced through all of the following beneficial communication practices EXCEPT: A. encouragement of personal conflict
141. The PMBOK process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers is known as: A. Plan procurement management.
142. The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as: A. validate scope
143. The process of improving the competencies, team interaction, and the overall team environment to enhance project performance is known as: A. Develop project team
144. The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents and project management plan; and communicating their disposition, is known as: A. perform integrated change control.
145. The procurement management plan: A. describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization.
146. The project manager is responsible for selecting appropriate quality standards for the project. Typically, these standards apply to all of the following EXCEPT: A. team selection criteria
147. The purpose of a check sheet is to quickly understand the primary causes of a particular problem using the 80/20 rule. A. False
148. The purpose of process control is to be able to have confidence that outputs are predictable. A. True
149. The quality management plan describes how an organization’s quality policies will be implemented. A. True
150. The Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is a measure of schedule efficiency on a project, expressed as the ratio of earned value (EV) to planned value (PV). A. True
151. The standard approach to making decisions on a project is to clearly and consistently vest decision making authority in the project manager. A. False
152. The Validate Scope process occurs with interim deliverables throughout the project and with final deliverables near the end. A. True
153. The value of engaging a subject matter expert early in a project should be balanced against the potentially significant cost of paying for his or her expertise. A. True
154. Traditional project procurement was characterized by win / lose adversarial relations between owner and contractor, whereas contemporary project partnering fosters a relationship of trust and collaboration. A. True
155. Two types of control are used extensively on projects: steering control and go / no go control. A. True
156. W. Edwards Deming argued that managers must understand cause and effect relationships to predict future behavior. A. True
157. W. Edwards Deming asserted that managers need to understand both serial variation and sequential variation and then work to reduce both. A. False
158. When a contract is terminated for convenience, the contractor must complete all deliverables in process and submit the completed deliverables to the buyer. A. False
159. When a decision needs to be made quickly or requires significant authority it is often useful to delegate the decision to one or two team members. A. False
160. When a project is completed on time, the project team must accomplish all of the following activities EXCEPT: A. use alternative dispute resolution
161. When a project is no longer needed or viable, the project manager, as primary advocate for the project, should recommend early termination A. True
162. When a project manager asks clarifying questions and paraphrases what is being communicated to them, he or she is using ? A. Active listening
163. When discrepancies are identified during a project quality audit, the presumption must be that workers failed to comply with procedures and should be reprimanded accordingly. A. False
164. When many members of the project team disagree, then it may be best to delay the decision, gather more data, or agree to let one or two team members investigate and recommend a strategy for the whole team. A. True
165. When reporting performance to sponsors and management, it is often helpful to organize the information in terms of three time horizons: past, current and future A. True
166. When using earned value techniques, Actual Cost (AC) refers to realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period. A. True
167. Which of the following activities are typically included in a project kick-off meeting? A. The project manager outlines the project goals.
168. Which of the following contract types is most appropriate when costs are NOT well known and the buyer absorbs all of the cost risk? A. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF)
169. Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization’s quality policy? A. quality management plan
170. Which of the following factors should be considered when a project team evaluates a “make or buy” decision to procure services? A. advantages and disadvantages of outsourcing in terms of time, cost and performance control
171. Which of the following is among the widely accepted project team success factors A. effective communication including performance feedback
172. Which of the following is one of the PMBOK Guide’s four project procurement management processes? A. Conduct procurements
173. Which of the following is true concerning lessons learned on a project? A. Lessons are the knowledge gained by team members as they perform the project.
174. Which of the following measures is best suited for determining whether the project is on, ahead or behind schedule? A. Schedule Variance (SV)
176. Which of the following quality management thought leaders is generally credited with contributing the insight that team learning is necessary to improve quality? A. Senge
177. Which of the following reasons might lead to an early contract termination for convenience? A. The buyer faces changing priorities.
178. Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful? A. An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all.
179. Which of the following serves as an important guideline concerning project inspections? A. inspect at milestones identified in the project charter
180. Which of the following statements is consistent with the ideas that W. Edwards Deming promoted regarding quality management? A. Understanding variation is essential to improving quality.
181. Which of the following styles of handling conflict is most appropriate whenever there is enough time, trust can be established, the issue is important to both sides and buy-in is needed? A. collaborating / problem solving
182. Which of the following terms describes a method for transforming contractual arrangements into a cohesive, collaborative project team with a single set of goals and established dispute resolution procedures? A. partnering
183. Which of the following types of contracts involves payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit? A. cost-reimbursable contract
184. Which of these guidelines should be used to handle project information needs? A. provide information soon enough so that it is useful to the recipient
185. Which party to a contract absorbs the preponderance of cost risk when a Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) contract is used? A. the seller
186. Which quality tool provides a crisp definition of what and how to measure specific performance? A. quality metrics
187. While the manage communications process is underway, effective information distribution often requires the project manager and team to accomplish all of the following activities EXCEPT: A. develop responses to identifies risks
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