1. (Blank) is the PMBOK process that identifies those project needs that can be met by acquiring products and services from outside suppliers, determines what to purchase or acquire, and finalizes when and how to do so. A. Plan procurement management
2. A (blank) presents a hierarchical organization of risks based on categories such as operational, strategic, finance, external, and project management. A. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)
3. A contract is a unilateral, binding document that obligates the seller to furnish supplies or services to the buyer. True or False? A. False
4. A Gantt chart is a horizontal bar chart that shows each work activity on a separate line with the bar placed from the early start date to the early finish date for each activity on a time scale. True or false? A. True
5. A high level view of processes and stakeholders, that starts with suppliers and ends with customers, is sometimes referred to as a “Plan-Do-Check-Act” (PDCA) model. True or False? A. False
6. A mandatory dependency is a logical relationship between activities that must happen. Usually due to a physical or legal demand. True or false? A. True
7. A method to work documenting and sharing lessons must be established in order for an organization to capitalize on lessons learned. True or false? A. True
8. A mile stone is a typical measuring point used when establishing cost control. Which of the following does not accurately describe the use of cost control milestones? A. Milestones are developed during risk planning
9. A project manager needs to ensure that the cumulative amount of cash coming into the project to either from internal budgeting or from customer payments meets or exceeds the demands for paying cash out. True or false? A. True
10. A project risk is anything that may impact the project team’s ability to achieve the general project success measures and the specific project stakeholders’ priorities. True or False? A. True
11. A project team attempting to close a project should review all of the following documents to ensure that everything promised was delivered except: A. stakeholder register
12. A project team attempting to close a project should review which of the following to ensure the customers are satisfied with the project work? A. the customer feedback and scope verification
13. A risk management plan should define who has responsibility for causing each risk and hold the responsible party directly accountable for developing an appropriate solution. True or False? A. False
14. A study of 25 organizational quality policies in 2017 found some interesting patterns, with the most frequent terms being customers, improving processes, and exceeding requirements. True or False? A. False
15. A traditional buyer seller relationship is defined as a long-term relationship between an owner and a contractor in which the contractor acts as a part of the owners organization for certain functions. True or false? A. False
16. Activity base causing allocates overhead to fixed cost based upon four different types of drivers. Which of the following is one of the most cost drivers that serves as a basis of cost allocation? A. Number of units produced
17. After the project team will start the selection process by establishing a list of potential suppliers. All of the following information sources are frequently used to identify these potential suppliers except: A. Stakeholder register
18. All of the following accurately describe earned value management except: A. It is good for performance reporting but not for forecasting
19. All of the following activities illustrate a risk responsive strategy designed to exploit an opportunity EXCEPT: A. purchase insurance
20. All of the following are benefits that can be attributed to the effective use of a risk management plan EXCEPT: A. It enables the project manager to identify and eliminate all risks.
21. All of the following can be used to categorize project risks EXCEPT: A. whether the risk is a known known
22. All of the following describes benefits associated with celebrating the completion of a project except: A. Celebrations are held in conjunction with team performance reviews
23. All of the following entities are typically included in the supply chain except: A. public relations
24. All of the following factors must be in place in order to develop an analogous estimate effectively except: A. An organization must know details behind the time value of money.
25. All of the following items contribute to developing empowered performance in an organization EXCEPT: A. Accepting the fact that project manager has total decision making authority.
26. All of the following practices have proven effective for managing lessons learned in an organization except: A. documenting all lessons learned only at the end of the project
27. All of the following reasons might lead to a contract termination for default except: A. changing customer priorities
28. All of the following statements accurately describe supply chain management except: A. It is a closed-loop system solely within the project organization’s boundaries
29. All of the following stems are valid reasons to conduct a project kick-off meeting EXCEPT: A. to emphasize that all decisions will be made exclusively by the project manager.
30. All of the following strategies can help a project team to develop realistic time estimates for project activities except: A. Add a significant buffer of time to each activity
31. All of the the following items are among the key areas covered by the Malcolm Baldridge National Quality Award EXCEPT: A. Team Learning
32. An example of fast tracking a project schedule would be to overlap the design and production phases for a design to production project, where the conventional approach would be to move on to construction only after completing the design phase. True or false? A. True
33. Analogous estimating is the most detailed, time consuming and accurate way to estimate A. False
34. And value is the approved value of the work to be completed in a given time. True or false? A. True
35. Any of the following attributes can serve as a useful factor for coding lessons learned except: A. lessons learned owner.
36. As part of the Control Quality process there may be recommended preventative actions, a proactive approach of making a change because a problem may occur otherwise. True or False? A. True
37. As the project manager identifies potential resources to work on the project, it is helpful to consider their professional disciplines, skill levels and their physical location. True or false? A. True
38. Because management plan provides guidelines to the project manager and other stakeholders and serves all the following purposes except: A. It documents how the project statement of work and business case should be created.
39. Both normal and special cause variation add to project cost and need to be considered by project managers. True or false? A. True
40. Buying from an outside supplier to meet project needs is a practice that is rarely used, because it invariably proves to be more expensive than doing the work with resources internal to the organization. True or false? A. False
41. Celebrations of success ease the stress of working hard for a prolonged period of time trying to accomplish a project. True or false? A. True
42. Change control is a process wherein change proposals to various planning elements are: A. Acknowledged, formally documented, and either approved or declined after review.
43. Closure of a project generally entails all of the following activities EXCEPT: A. updating the project management plan
44. Consider the activity duration estimates presented in figure 7.5. Based on the information provided and adopting the PERT conventions to calculate expected activity durations, what is the expected duration of activity D package item? A. 9.5 days
45. Consider the excerpt of the Internet Project risk register presented in figure 10-1. Which of the following risk events should receive the highest priority for the development of risk responses? A. IS resources are spread to thin.
46. Consider the lab experiment Project depicted in figure 7.4. Based on the information provided, how many days can you delay the calibration of the instrumentation, without impacting the expected project completion date? A. 0 days
47. Consider the lab experiment project depicted in figure 7.4. Based on the information provided, what is the expected duration of this project? A. 24 days
48. Consider the lab experiment project depicted in figure 7.4. Based on the information provided, identify the critical path for this project? A. Both A-B-D-F and A-B-E-F are critical paths
49. Consider the network scheduling data presented in figure 7.6. How many days of slack are associated with activity F? A. 80
50. Consider the networks scheduling data provided and figure 7.6. What is the expected duration of this project? A. 107 days
51. Consider the programmers resource histogram presented in figure 8.3. Which activity is an ideal candidate to delay in order to achieve a feasible schedule? A. Activity C, draft user manual
52. Consider the programmers resource histogram presented in figure 8.3. If only six programmers are available to support this project, which of the following conclusions is valid? A. The demand for programmers during the week five and six exceeds the number available
53. Consider the programmers resource histogram presented in figure 8.3. How many programmers are required during the fifth week of this project? A. 7 programmers
54. Consider the project crashing information presented in figure 8.4. Which activity should you crash to reduce this project by one day with the least incremental cost? A. Activity E
55. Consider the project crashing information presented in figure 8.4. What is the cost to complete this project in the normal time? A. $145
56. Consider the project crashing information presented in figure 8.4. What is the total cost to complete this project in seven days if crashed in the most cost efficient manner? A. $220
57. Consider the project crashing information presented in figure 8.4. What is the normal duration of this project? A. 9 days
58. Consider the project performance report presented and figure 14.1. Your analysis has determined that your estimate to complete is $226,000. Based on your performance to date and assuming future performance will proceed at the same level of efficiency as pass performance what is your estimate at completion? A. $550,000
59. Consider the project performance report presented and figure 14.1. What valid conclusion can you draw regarding the project schedule performance as of October 31, 2021? A. Project is $18,000 behind schedule
60. Consider the project performance report presented in figure 14.1. As a project manager, these results should lead you to… A. Take actions to understand and resolve budgetary overruns on the active communications work packages.
61. Consider the RACI chart presented in figure 8.1. Who is accountable for the data requirements? A. The project manager
62. Consider the RACI chart presented in figure 8.1. Who is responsible for development of the specification? A. The project engineer
63. Consider the research project depicted in figure 7.2. Based on the information provided, what is the late start date for activity C? A. Day 4
64. Consider the research project depicted in figure 7.2. Based on the information provided, what is the slack associated with activity C review reports? A. 2 days
65. Consider the software programmer loading chart presented in figure 8.2. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the loading of the software programmer? A. The programmer is overloaded on both Wednesday and Thursday
66. Consider the software programmer loading chart presented in figure 8.2. What percent of available time is the software programmer assigned to work activities on Thursday? A. 200 percent
67. Consider the system integration project depicted in figure 7.3. Based on the information provided, which activities constitute the critical path for this project? A. A-B-E-F
68. Consider the system integration project depicted in figure 7.3. Based on the information provided, which activities can be delayed one day without impacting the expected project completion date? A. Activity C – purchase software and activity D – prepare test plan
69. Consider the time phased budget presented in figure 9.1, what is the cumulative project budget through the end of April? A. $46,000
70. Contract incentives are often used when the buyer wants the seller to meet some defined project metrics, such as finishing the project early providing a higher level of quality or more features or anything else that the buyer wants to maximize and is willing to pay for. True or False? A. True
71. Costs that repeat as project work continues such as the cost of writing code or laying brakes are appropriately classified as: A. Recurring costs
72. Crashing almost always accelerates the schedule while increasing project risk, whereas fast tracking almost always accelerates the schedule while increasing project cost. True or false? A. False
73. Crashing is a project schedule compression technique that expedites a project by executing activities at the same time that ordinarily would be done one after the other. True or false? A. False
74. Creating a realistic schedule is often an iterative process because several factors can limit how fast a project can be completed. All of the following factors can limit how fast a project can be scheduled and completed EXCEPT: A. quality metrics
75. Critical chain project management attempts to keep the most highly demanded resource busy on critical chain activities, but not overloaded. True or false? A. True
76. Critical chain project management is an alternate scheduling technique that modifies the project schedule by taking resource constraints into account. True or false? A. True
77. Crosby, a well know quality management thought leader, asserts that quality is meeting requirements, not exceeding them. True or False? A. True
78. Despite the insights that PERT provides, there are still practical limitations that impact its usefulness. All of the following difficulties are associated with the use of PERT EXCEPT: A. It highlights uncertainty in project duration
79. Direct costs typically include the cost of direct labor as well as other direct costs for stems such as material, travel, subcontracts and computer time. True or false? A. True
80. DMAIC is a disciplined process that includes five phases: define, measure, analyze, improve, and control. DMAIC is most typically associated with which of the following quality improvement approaches? A. Six Sigma
81. DMAIC is typically used as a method of implementing continuous improvement and can thus be practiced repeatedly. A. True
82. During procurement planning, the project team determines which needs can best be met by acquiring products and services from an outside provider, and which can be accomplished by the team. True or false? A. True
83. During which of the following project schedule management processes does the team estimate the number of work. That will be required to complete a scheduled activity, usually expressed as workdays or work weeks? A. Estimate activity durations
84. Early in a project with very little detail is known about a project, it is impractical to render even a rough estimate of the final project cost. True or false? A. False
85. Early termination can be either for default or for the convenience of the seller. True or false? A. False
86. Estimate activity resources focuses exclusively upon the identification of the number of human resources required to perform each scheduled activity. True or false? A. False
87. Estimate activity resources is the process of assessing all types of resources, people, materials, tools, and equipment, required for each activity to complete it as specified in project scope. True or false? A. False
88. Estimate cost is the process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities. True or false? A. True
89. Evaluations of prospective suppliers by project teams often involve all of the following approaches EXCEPT: A. prototyping
90. Even when a project team does not identify individual activities, it will still need to determine how many resources and what knowledge and skill each needs to complete the project. True or false? A. True
91. Events discovered during a identify risks that may or may not occur are often categorized as: A. Known unknowns
92. Fact-based management includes four key ideas. Which of the following is among the key ideas associated with fact-based management? A. understanding variation
93. Fixed price contracts provide low risk for the seller, since the buyer will pay a fixed price, regardless of how much the project actually costs the seller. True or False? A. False
94. For risk events outside project control, resolution strategies include working with clients to re-prioritize cost, schedule, scope or quality and carefully escalate problems. True or false? A. False
95. Four aspects of empowerment performance are understanding variation, deciding what to measure, working correctly with data, and using the resulting information appropriately. True or False? A. False
96. Generally, parametric estimating requires less information and time than analogous estimating. True or false? A. False
97. Helping good workers to secure good follow on work is one of the most important things a project manager must do near the end of the project. A. True
98. If necessary, the quality policy on a specific project may violate either the quality policies of the parent organization or of a major customer. True or False? A. False
99. If the project manager changes an activity on the critical path to start at a later date, then the whole project will end at a later date. True or false? A. True
100. In a control chart, a point that occurs above the upper limit control limit typically means that some sort of special cause is creating the variation and requires a specific intervention. True or false? A. True
101. In a project is no longer needed or viable, the project manager, as primary advocate for the project, should recommend early termination. True or false? A. True
101. In agile projects early risk planning, assessment and response planning is done at a high level, and more detailed and timely risk management occurs during the planning of each subsequent iteration, in daily stand up meetings, and in retrospectives at the of each iteration. True or False? A. True
102. In many cases, the proposal prepared by the vendor becomes a part of the final contract. True or false? A. True
103. In order to determine that a project is progressing adequately, a project manager could use a balanced score card approach to evaluate the organization along supplier, external business, risk and human resource perspectives. True or false? A. False
104. In some cases, project teams will elect to reduce a threat to a level that a sponsor and other stakeholders deem acceptable, rather than eliminate it completely. True or False? A. True
105. In which of the following tools would a normal or bell shaped curve be expected if no special conditions are occurring? A. histogram
106. Inflating the value of future revenue and cost streams to account for the time value of money enables better project decisions. True or false? A. False
107. Information is a key ingredient at each stage of the project supply chain, as well as within each phase of supply chain decision making. A. True
108. Joseph Juran is credited for developing the Quality Trilogy that includes quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. A. True
109. Just as total quality dramatically changed general engagement in the 1990s, agile is dramatically changing project management in the 2010s. A. True
110. Lessons learned can include significant project success. True or false? A. True
111. Logistics is the work required to move and position inventory throughout the supply chain. True or false? A. True
112. Manage Quality is the process of using the quality plan and policy to perform tasks that will most likely lead to creating project outputs to customers’ satisfaction. True or False? A. True
113. Many organizations require the completion of a project closeout report upon completion of a project. These reports typically include which of the following? A. A review of the projects original justification
114. Many organizations use project closeout checklist that itemize typical project activities and/or deliverables. These can be used to assign responsibility to each item concerning project closeout. True or false? A. True
115. Milestones are important points in a project schedule that can serve as checkpoints for project managers and sponsors. Which of the following could be a reason to identify a mile stone during project schedule planning? A. Weekly team status meetings
116. Monitoring and controlling project work refers to the process of tracking, reviewing and reporting progress to meet the performance objectives to find in the project plan. True or false? A. True
117. More organizations effectively collect lessons learned than effectively disseminate and use them. True or False? A. True
118. Most projects will employ bottom-up estimating at some point to serve as a basis for estimating cash flow needs and for controlling the project. True or false? A. True
119. Of the following items describe an aspect of lifecycle costing except: A. Lifecycle cost only includes the project cost from initiating through closing
120. On agile projects, because communication is frequent and rapid, a directional indicator showing that things are getting better or worse and some manner is more valuable than a more detailed and polished report. True or false? A. True
121. On agile projects, detailed risk management activities may occur during all of the following except A. During early risk planning at the start of the project.
122. On complex projects, despite the importance of factors such as technical capability, managerial capability and previous experience; the selection decision is made mostly or entirely on price. True or False? A. False
123. On one project it is often better to capture lessons frequently since people may not remember clearly what happened several months previously. True or false? A. True
124. On some projects, some deliverables remain incomplete project close out. Activities that are not complete should be itemized, and responsibility for each should be clearly identified. True or false? A. True
125. Once risks have been identified and analyzed, the project team decides how they will handle each risk. True or False? A. True
126. One approach to identifying which activities contribute to work overload for a particular resource is to compare the resource histogram to the Gantt chart schedule, using the same time scale. True or false? A. True
127. Outputs of plan procurement management include the procurement management plan and procurement statement of work. True or false? A. True
128. Perform qualitative risk analysis is the process of adhering to the risk response plan of tracking identified risks, Identify new risks, monitoring residual risks, and evaluating the effectiveness of the risk response process throughout the project. True or false? A. False
129. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. True or False? A. True
130. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. True or False? A. True
131. Plan Risk Response is the process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives. True or False? A. True
132. Process Analysis is a step by step breakdown of the phases of a process, used to determine the inputs, outputs, and operations that take place during each phase. True or False? A. True
133. Project manager should not lie to themselves or others regarding project costs. True or false? A. True
134. Project managers find many advantages in having diverse teams, as considering diverse perspectives in making decisions can help avoid major risks that a single perspective would not uncover. True or false? A. True
135. Project managers must often face the challenge of compressing the project schedule. All of the following actions can be taken to reduce the duration of the critical path except: A. Use the float in critical path activities
137. Project managers often confront the challenge of reducing excessive time commitments and overloads among project resources. All of the following methods can be used to reduce work overloads except: A. Require all project resources to work overtime
138. Project partnerships offer all the following advantages to vendors except: A. Buyer gains at the vendor’s expense
139. Project partnerships offer which of the following advantages to both clients and vendors? A. Ability to explore new technologies
140. Project quality is defined as the characteristic of a product or a service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs. True or False? A. True
141. Project teams can often identify risks by conducting any of several types of reviews. Which of the following illustrates a valuable type of risk review? A. review the communication plan to determine where poor communications could cause a problem.
142. Projects often include indirect costs that are necessary to keep the organization running, but are not associated with one specific project. Which of the following items are most typically considered to be in the right cost? A. Executive salaries, utilities and insurance
143. Quality control activities generally include all the following except: A. Management by Objections
144. Quality control charts are helpful in answering the question how big of a chance is big enough to count? True or false? A. True
145. . Recurring cost to do occur during project planning and closing while non-recurring cost tend to occur during project execution. True or false? A. False
146. Risk response strategies such as accept risk and research risk apply to both threats and opportunities. True or False? A. Risk response strategies such as accept risk and research risk apply to both threats and opportunities. True or False? A. True
147. Risk response strategy decisions should reflect a thorough understanding of the priorities that key stakeholders have for cost, schedule, scope, and quality. True or False? A. True
148. Self-directed teams on agile projects are largely empowered to decide what work to do and when to do it, consistent with the prioritizing of deliverables by the product owner. True or false? A. True
149. Since projects are temporary in nature and the project team to spans upon completion, it is not necessary for project managers to provide ongoing support in the form of training, change management, and/or other services. True or false? A. False
150. Six Sigma is a quality improvement approach that is particularly suited for many service processes that people had previously said were too difficult if not impossible to measure. True or False? A. True
151. Some organizations for ally upon a formal group authorized and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, Duane, or rejecting any changes to any aspect of the project plan by following a formal communication method of document in the decision process. This group is typically known as a: A. Change control board
152. Some project sponsors will only approve a project charter if it includes and reflects lessons learned from other recently completed projects. True or false? A. True
153. Some scope changes start as proposed changes to cost or schedule, just as some changes to cost or schedule start as proposed scope changes. True or false? A. True
154. Sometimes a project is terminated before its normal completion. True or false? A. True
155. Sometimes the risks posed by a project are deemed unacceptably large compared to the potential benefits, and the ultimate avoidance strategy is to not perform the project at all. True or False? A. True
156. Supply chain management focuses exclusively upon the parties directly involved in providing supplies to the project teams. True or False? A. False
157. Supply chain operations require managerial processes that span across functional areas within individual organizations, and link trading partners and customers across organizational boundaries. True or False? A. True
158. Supply chains use a combination of modes of transportation including air rail water pipeline and truck. True or False? A. True
159. The (blank) documents the portion of work to be purchased, in enough detail so potential suppliers can decide if they feel they are capable of and interested in providing it. A. Procurement statement of work
160. The (blank) is the approved budget, usually in a time distribution format, that is used to estimate, monitor, and control the overall cost performance of the project. A. Cost baseline
161. The budget at completion is the sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed on a project. As such it is equivalent to: A. The total planned value of the project
162. The component of the project management plan that describes how project costs will be planned, structured and controlled is called the project financial plan. True or false? A. False
163. The cost per risk for risks discovered early in the project is often more than the cost per risk for risks discovered late because there is more opportunity for the risk to impact several dimensions of the project. True or False? A. False
164. The cost variance is a cost performance measure expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost. True or false? A. False
165. The evaluation criteria that were developed during procurement planning to define how the teams will evaluate and rank proposals should guide them in the vendor evaluation and selection process. True or False? A. True
166. The four contemporary core project quality concepts that evolved from the quality gurus and frameworks include which of the following? A. Stakeholders Satisfaction
167. The goal of empowered performance is to improve performance results each and every period. True or False? A. False
168. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) developed a quality management standard that now encompasses seven quality management areas including leadership, operations, and improvement. True or False? A. True
169. The length of time to perform an activity is often dependent upon who will do what work. True or false? A. True
170. The most common type of logical dependency to determine the sequence of project activities is finish to finish. True or false? A. False
172. The primary advantage of PERT is that it removes uncertainty from the estimates of activity durations, thereby increasing confidence in the reliability of a project schedule. True or false? A. False
173. The primary output of Identify Risks is the Risk Identification Matrix (RIM). True or False? A. False
174. The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project is known as Project Risk Absorption Methodology (PRAM). True or False? A. False
175. The process of developing an approximation of monetary resources needed to complete project activities is known as: A. Estimate cost
176. The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as: A. Validate Scope
177. The project organization can be a seller and dealing with the project owner or customer and a buyer in a more prevalent procurement setting. True or false? A. True
178. The project scope does not come into play when considering fixed and variable cost choices. True or false? A..False
179. The purpose of a check she is too quickly understand the primary causes of a particular problem using the 80/20 rule. True or false? A. False
180. The purpose of process control is to be able to have confidence that outputs are predictable. True or False? A. True
181. The purpose of risk management is to eliminate all project risk. True or False? A. False
182. The quality management plan defines the acceptable level of quality. Which is typically defined by the customer, and describes how the project will ensure this level of quality in its deliverables and work processes. True or False? A. True
183. The risk register is a component of the project management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed on a project. True or False? A. False
184. The risk register is a living document and new risks can be added as they are discovered. True or False? A. True
185. The schedule activity that determines when the logical successor activity can begin or end is called the: A. Predecessor activity
186. The schedule performance index is a schedule performance measure expressed as the ratio of earned value to plan value. True or false? A. True
187. The start to start logical relationship used in activity sequencing applies to the case in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started. True or false? A. True
188. The validate scope process occurs with interim deliverables throughout the project and with final deliverables near the end. True or false? A. True
189. This term is defined as the total number of work periods required to complete a schedule activity, usually expressed as workdays or work weeks: A. Duration
190. Time and materials refer to a manufacturing contacts were just in time tools are used to ensure that every step in the supply process adds value, while costs are kept to a minimum. True or false A. False
191. To use the enumeration method of determining the critical path, we list or enumerate all of the paths through the networks. True or false? A. True
192. Traditional project procurement was characterized by win/lose adversarial relations between owner and contractor, whereas contemporary project partnering fosters a relationship of trust and collaboration. True or False? A. True
193. Two types of control are used extensively on projects and both compare actual performance against the plan: steering control and go/no go control. True or false?
A. True
194. Typically, expedited caused her preferred over regular cost. True or false? A. False
195. Under normal conditions, which of these contract types poses the greatest risk to the buyer? A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
196. Unknown unknowns are expected events which can occur when the project is underway. All of the following accurately describe an implication associated with the unknown unknowns except: A. They are usually discovered during risk identification
197. W. Edwards Deming asserted that managers need to understand both serial variations and sequential variation and then work to reduce both. True or False? A. True
198. What type of cost is incurred when a project must be conducted faster than normal, and overtime for workers and/or extra charges for rapid delivery from suppliers are necessary? A. expedited costs
199. When a contract is terminated for convenience, the contractor must complete all deliverables and process and submit the completed deliverables to the buyer. True or false? A. False
200. When a project is completed on time, the project team must accomplish all of the following activities except: A. use alternative dispute resolution
201. When complete, the risk register presents the results of both qualitative and quantitative risk analysis as well as risk response planning. True or False? A. True
202. When determining resource availability, project managers need only consider full-time, internal resources. True or false? A. False
203. When developing a project schedule, total float refers to the amount of time a schedule activity may be delayed from its early start date without delaying the project end date. True or false? A. True
204. When estimating resource needs, project teams should consider all the following except: A. Strengths and weaknesses of scoring models
205. When project managers authorize work, they should empower others to the extent possible, yet control them to the extent necessary. True or false? A. True
206. When resource overloads are extreme, project managers may need to consider the acquisition of additional resources, reductions and scope or extensions to the project schedule. True or false? A. True
207. When the impact of an event is negative, it is considered a risk; when the impact is positive, the event is considered an opportunity. True or False? A. False
208. When using earned value techniques, actual cost refers to the total of costs incurred in accomplishing work on the activity during a given-period. True or false? A. True
209. Which are estimating technique use a statistical relationship to calculate cost of duration based on historical data and other project parameters? A. Parametric estimating
210. Which estimating technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for scope, cost and duration? A. Parametric estimating
211. Which of the following accurately describes risk in project management? A. A risk may impact the project in a positive or negative way.
212. Which of the following activities are typically activities included in a project kick-off meeting? A. The project manager outlines the project goals.
213. Which of the following describes how the team uses a cause-and-effect diagram to support project risk analysis? A. The team lists the risk as the “effect” on a box at the head of a fish, then names the big bones.
214. Which of the following describes the activities appropriately performed by the project team during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis? A. Team members assess the probability of occurrence and severity of impact for identified risks.
215. Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization’s quality policy? A. quality management plan
216. Which of the following factors should be considered in a make or buy decision? A. Advantages and disadvantages of outsourcing in terms of time cost and performance control.
217. Which of the following is true concerning lessons learned on a project? A. Lessons learned are the useful knowledge gained by project team members as they perform the project.
218. Which of the following measures is best suited for determining whether the project is on, ahead or behind schedule? A. Schedule variance
219. Which of the following quality management thought leaders is generally credited with contributing the insight that team learning is necessary to improve quality? A. Senge
220. Which of the following quantitative risk analysis techniques is used to determine which risks have the most powerful impact on the project, with results displayed in the form of a tornado diagram? A. Sensitivity Analysis
221. Which of the following reasons might lead to an early contract termination for convenience? A. The buyer faces changing priorities.
222. Which of the following remedies may reduce the likelihood of omissions when developing activity duration estimates? A. learning curve
223. Which of the following responses identifies a common type of logical dependency used to sequence project activities? A. finish-to-start
224. Which of the following serves as a pre-condition that must be met in order for a project kick-off meeting to be successful? A. An atmosphere of trust and relationship building should be set by all.
225. Which of the following terms describes extra money in the project budget to be used if necessary usually if a risk event occurs? A. Reserve
226. Which of the following types of contracts involves payment to the seller for the sellers actual approval cost of completed work, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit? A. Cost-reimbursable contract
227. Which of these is a measurement used to ensure customers receive acceptable products or deliverables? A. Quality Metric
228. Which of these is not an issue to be considered when selecting team members? A. stages of team development
229. Which of these is not one of the typical questions that a project manager might ask in order to collect information on executed work and work in progress? A. What information should be covered in the project kick-off meeting?
230. Which of these represents a typical problem that can make it difficult to estimate activity durations accurately? A. merging – multiple predecessors
231. Which of these would not typically be found in a Quality Management Plan? A. Team selection criteria
232. While a RACI chart may be very useful for assigning activities to core team members and project managers, it should not include the subject matter experts assigned to the project. True or false? A. False
233. While the manage communications process is underway, effective information distribution often requires the project manager and team to accomplish all of the following activities except: A. develop responses to identifies risks
234. With respect to performance reporting, which of these are the actual and raw observations and measurements gathered during execution of project activities? A. Work performance data
235. Work to be performed can come from the work package level of the work breakdown structure as well as other sources. Which of these is not a source of authorized work to be performed? A. scope creep
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