1. A company accidentally sends a newsletter with a mistyped website address. The address points to a website that has been spoofed by hackers to collect information from people who make the same typo. What kind of attack is this?  Phishing
2. A company wants to have its employees sign a document that details some project-related information that should not be discussed outside the project’s team members. What type of document should they use?   NDA
3. A former employee discovers six months after he starts work at a new company that his account credentials still give him access to his old company’s servers. He demonstrates his access to several friends to brag about his cleverness and talk badly about the company. What kind of attack is this?   Insider threat
4. A network with 10 bits remaining for the host portion will have how many usable host addresses?   1022
5. A network with a CIDR notation of /26 would have what subnet mask?  255.255.255.192
6. A routing protocol’s reliability and priority are rated by what measurement?   AD
7. A variant of BYOD, what does CYOD allow employees or students to do?   They can choose a device from a limited number of options.
8. A vSwitch (virtual switch) or bridge is a logically defined device that operates at what layer of the OSI model?   Layer 2
9. Active Directory and 389 Directory Server are both compatible with which directory access protocol?  LDAP
10. An attack that relies on redirected and captured secure transmissions as they occur is known as what type of attack?   man-in-the-middle attack
11. An interface that manages traffic from multiple VLANs is known by what term?   trunk port
12. An IP address of 192.168.18.73/28 has what network ID?   192.168.18.64
13. At what layer of the OSI model do proxy servers operate?   Layer 7
14. By default, what network connection type is selected when creating a VM in VMware, VirtualBox, or KVM?   NAT mode
15. By default, when using classful addressing, how many bits exist in the host portion of a Class A address?    24
16. Given a host IP address of 172.16.1.154 and a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, what is the network ID for this host?   172.16.0.0
17. How many bits of a class A IP address are used for host information?   24 bits
18. In a red team-blue team exercise, what is the purpose of the blue team?   The blue team is charged with the defense of the network.
19. In a software defined network, what is responsible for controlling the flow of data?    SDN controller
20. In an IPv6 address, what do the first four blocks or 64 bits of the address represent?  The site prefix or global routing prefix.
21. In the typical social engineering attack cycle, what occurs at Phase 3?   The attacker exploits an action undertaken by the victim in order to gain access.
22. Leading up to the year 2000, many people expected computer systems the world over to fail when clocks turned the date to January 1, 2000. What type of threat was this?   Logic bomb
23. Of the three methods of access control (RBAC, DAC, and MAC), RBAC is the least secure of the options.   False
24. One of your coworkers downloaded several, very large video files for a special project she’s working on for a new client. When you run your network monitor later this afternoon, what list will your coworker’s computer likely show up on?   Top listeners
25. Over a long-distance connection, using SSH keys is more secure than using passwords.  True
26. The combination of a public key and a private key are known by what term below?  key pair
27. The concept of giving employees and contractors only enough access and privileges to do their jobs is known by what term?  principle of least privilege
28. VMware Player and Linux KVM are both examples of what type of hypervisor?  Type 2 hypervisor
29. What do well-chosen subnets accomplish?   Network documentation is easier to manage.
30. What document addresses the specific concerns related to special access given to administrators and certain support staff?   privileged user agreement
31. What field in an IPv4 packet is altered to prioritize video streaming traffic over web surfing traffic?  DiffServ
32. What IEEE standard specifies how VLAN information appears in frames and how switches interpret that information?    802.1Q
33. What information does the switchport port-security command use to restrict access to a switch’s interface?   MAC address
34. What information in a transmitted message might an IDS use to identify network threats?  Signature
35. What is the formula for determining the number of possible hosts on a network?  2^h – 2 = Z
36. What is the lowest layer of the OSI model at which LANs and WANs support the same protocols?  Layer 3
37. What kind of device can monitor a connection at the demarc but cannot interpret data?  Smartjack
38. What kind of route is created when a network administrator configures a router to use a specific path between nodes?   Static route
39. What method does a GSM network use to separate data on a channel?     TDMA
40. What port do SNMP agents listen on?   Port 161
41. What specifications define the standards for cable broadband?   DOCSIS
42. What type of an attack forces clients off a wireless network, creating a form of Wi-Fi DoS?  deauthentication attack
43. What type of attack relies on spoofing?   Deauth attack
44. What virtual, logically defined device operates primarily at the data link layer to pass frames between nodes?   Virtual switch
45. When a router can’t determine a path to a message’s destination, where does it send the message?   Gateway of last resort
46. When is it appropriate to utilize the NAT network connection type?  Whenever the VM does not need to be access at a known address by other network nodes.
47. When shopping for a new a router, what does the MTBF tell you?    How long devices like this one will last on average until the next failure
48. When using Spanning Tree Protocol, what is the first step in selecting paths through a network?    STP must first select the root bridge, or master bridge.
49. When utilizing Kerberos, an access granting ticket is the same as a key.   False
50. When you set private IP address ranges for servers in your cloud, what service model are you using?   IaaS
51. Which assignment technique requires a RADIUS server?   Dynamic VLAN assignment
52. Which cloud management technique executes a series of tasks in a workflow?   Orchestration
53. Which data link layer flow control method offers the most efficient frame transmission when sending large volumes of data?  Selective repeat sliding window
54. Which device can manage traffic to multiple servers in a cluster so all servers equally share the traffic?   Load balancer
55. Which device would allow an attacker to make network clients use an illegitimate default gateway?   DHCP server
56. Which hexadecimal block in an IPv6 address is used for the Subnet ID?   The fourth one
57. Which IEEE standard determines how VLANs work on a network?   802.1Q
58. Which log type is used to prove who did what and when?  Audit log
59. Which of the following ACL commands would permit web-browsing traffic from any IP address to any IP address?   access-list acl_2 permit https any any
60. Which of the following attack simulations detect vulnerabilities and attempt to exploit them?  Pen testing
    Red team-blue team exercise
61. Which of the following criteria can a packet-filtering firewall not use to determine whether to accept or deny traffic?   Application data
62. Which of the following features of a network connection between a switch and server is not improved by link aggregation?  Speed
63. Which of the following is an example of proxy server software?   Squid
64. Which of the following is considered a secure protocol?   SSH
65. Which of the following is not one of the AAA services provided by RADIUS and TACACS+?  Administration
66. Which of the following versions of SNMP are considered unsecure?   SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c
67. Which of these cellular technologies offers the fastest speeds?   LTE-A
68. Which OSI layer is responsible for directing data from one LAN to another?   Network layer
69. Which policy ensures messages are discarded when they don’t match a specific firewall rule?  Implicit deny
70. Which port mode on a switch enables that port to manage traffic for multiple VLANs?   Trunk
71. Which power backup method will continually provide power to a server if the power goes out during a thunderstorm?   Online UPS
72. Which principle ensures auditing processes are managed by someone other than the employees whose activities are being audited?   Separation of duties
73. Which protocol balances traffic across multiple links?   LACP
74. Which routing protocol does an edge router use to collect data to build its routing tables for paths across the Internet?   BGP
75. Which SAN connection technology can run over ordinary Ethernet NICs without any special equipment needed?   Iscsi
76. Which SDN plane moves traffic from switch port to switch port?    Infrastructure plane
77. Which statement regarding the use of a bridged mode vNIC is accurate?   The vNIC will its own IP address on the physical LAN.
78. Which type of cloud service model involves hardware services that are provided virtually, including network infrastructure devices such as virtual servers?   IaaS
79. Which type of disaster recovery site contains all the equipment you would need to get up and running again after a disaster, and yet would require several weeks to implement?   Cold site
80. Which type of DoS attack orchestrates an attack bounced off uninfected computers?  DRDoS attack
81. Which type of switch connects all devices in a rack to the rest of the network?   ToR switch
82. Which type of switch is best used for connections to web servers?   Edge switch
83. Which virtual network connection type assigns a VM its IP address from the physical network?  Bridged
84. While troubleshooting a recurring problem on your network, you want to examine the TCP messages being exchanged between a server and a client. Which tool should you use on the server?  Wireshark
85. Who is responsible for the security of hardware on which a public cloud runs?   The cloud provider
86. You have configured a new DHCP server and connected it to the network. There is connectivity to the server, but the clients in the network are unable to obtain IP addresses from the server. Which of the following enabled feature on the switch can cause this issue?   DHCP Snooping
87. You have empty ports on your switches, that is, no connected hosts. Which of the following are best practices to ensure that the empty ports are secure?   Move the ports from the default VLAN to a new, unused VLAN and then disable them
88. You need to create an access list on your router to filter specific IP addresses and ports. You created entries with permit statements and deny statements. But you forget to add one specific deny statement to filter traffic from host A. How will this traffic be treated?  Host A traffic will be denied because, at the end of every access list, there is an implicit deny statement
89. You need to securely store handheld radios for your network technicians to take with them when they’re troubleshooting problems around your campus network. What’s the best way to store these radios so all your techs can get to them and so you can track who has the radios?  Smart locker
90. You work in an organization as a network administrator. One of your new clients owns a hotel and has asked you to provide a single Internet connection for every room, but also ensure that the users are not visible to each other. Which technology on the switch will you use to meet the requirements stated in the scenario?  Create Private VLANs
91. Your organization has just approved a special budget for a network security upgrade. What procedure should you conduct to develop your recommendations for the upgrade priorities   Posture assessment
92. Your roommate has been hogging the bandwidth on your router lately. What feature should you configure on the router to limit the amount of bandwidth his computer can utilize at any one time?  Traffic shaping

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