1. Which of the bad guys are described as “They are “in” an organization but are human and make mistakes”?
Inadvertant Actor
2. Which is NOT one of the security controls?
Testing
3. What year did the European Union start enforcing GDPR?
2018
4. Which three (3) of these obligations are part of the 5 key GDPR obligations?
Rights of EU Data Subject
Accountability of Compliance
Consent
5. Which is the foundational principle that everyone will get during a SOC audit?
Security
6. The HIPAA security rule requires covered entites to maintain which two (2) reasonable safeguards for protecting e-PHI?
Physical
Technical
7. HIPAA Administrative safeguards include which two (2) of the following?
Workforce Training and Management
Security Personnel
8. PCI includes 264 requirements grouped under how many main requirements?
12
9. If you are a mature organization, which CIS Controls Implementation Group would you use?
Implementation Group 3
A security attack is defined as which of the following?
10. An event that has been identified by correlation and analytics tools as a malicious activity.
Which order does a typical compliance process follow?
Establish scope, readiness assessment, gap remediation, testing/auditing, management reporting
11. Under GDPR, who determines the purpose and means of processing of personal data?
Controller
12. Under the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), which standard focuses on Privacy?
ISO 27018
13. Which SOC report is closest to an ISO report?
Type 1
14. What is an auditor looking for when they test the control for implementation over an entire offering with no gaps?
Completeness
15. The HIPAA Security Rule requires covered entities to maintain which three (3) reasonable safeguards for protecting e-PHI?
Physical
Administrative
administrative
16. HIPAA Administrative safeguards include which two (2) of the following?
Security Personnel
Workforce training and management
17. Who is the governing entity for HIPAA?
US Department of Health and Human Services Office of Civil Rights
18. HIPAA Physical safeguards include which two (2) of the following?
Workstation and Device Security
Facility Access and Control
19. PCI uses which three (3) of the following Card Holder Data Environment categories to determine scope?
People
Technology
Processes
20. One PCI Requirement is using an approved scanning vendor to scan at what frequency?
Quarterly
21. In which CIS control category will you find Incident Response and Management?
Organizational
22. Which is NOT an example of a client?
e-mail Server
23. Which three (3) threat key factors should be considered when looking at an Endpoint Security Solution?
detection response
threat hunting
user education
23. Your organization uses Xcitium OpenEDR for endpoint protection and response (EDR). You want to know the number of each type of endpoint device, such as smartphones, tablets, and PCs. You also want to know the number of corporate-owned devices versus personal devices. Where in the Xcitium Enterprise Platform’s cloud manager can you find an overview of this information?
Audit pane
24. A patch is a set of changes to a computer program or its data designed for which three (3) functions?
Fix
Improve
update
25. Which two types of updates do most organizations patch as soon as possible after testing?
Security and Critical
26. Which three (3) are common Endpoint attack types?
Ad Network
Whale hunting
Spear Phishing
27. Endpoint detection and response includes which three (3) of these key technologies?
Zero-day OS updates.
28. Automatic policy creation for endpoints.
Continuous monitoring.
29. Which common endpoint attack is targeted at supply chain infiltration?
Island Hopping
30. What two windows security updates do most organizations always patch?
critical and important
31. How frequent will most organizations distribute patches?
Monthly
32. Your organization uses Xcitium OpenEDR for endpoint protection and response (EDR). You want to confirm that a specific endpoint has the most recent versions of third-party applications such as VLC media player. Where can you find this information in the Xcitium Enterprise Platform’s cloud manager?
Patch Management page
33. Which three (3) objects are typically managed by active directory?
Services
Network User
Volumes
34.. Which type of group within Active Directory is used to assign permissions to shared resources?
Security groups
35. Kerberos Authentication provides several benefits including which three (3) of the following?
single sign on
interoperability
delegated authentication
36. Which of the nine different kinds of Windows events that can be audited is used to see when someone has shutdown or restarted the computer or when a program tries to do something it does not have permission to do?
System events
37. True or False: Internal commands are built into the shell program and are shell dependent?
True
38. Which Linux Run Level shuts down all services when the system is being rebooted?
Run Level 6: Reboot
39. Which Windows directory folder stores per-user application data and settings?
\AppData
40. Which is NOT an example of a default Windows local user account?
Network Service
41. Which feature allows Active Directory to be shared by multiple servers?
A replication services
42. Which three (3) of the following steps can be taken to help protect sensitive Windows domain accounts?
Disable the account delegation rights for administrator accounts.
Separate administrator accounts from user accounts.
Create dedicated workstation hosts without Internet and email access.
43. What tool can an administrator use to manage servers on private networks that are not connected to the Internet?
Network Admin Center
44. Which of the nine different kind of Windows events that can be audited is used to see each instance of a user logging on to and logging off from another computer?
Account logon
45. Which of these commands does not shutdown the Linux operating system?
Grep
46. Which Linux commands are totally shell-independent and usually found in any Linux distribution?
External commands
47. Which three (3) of the following are common choices of Shell?
Bash
sh
tcsh
48. Which of the cryptography basics ensures authentication, non-repudiation and integrity?
Digital Signatures
Complete the following statement.
at rest, in use, and in transit.
49. Which is NOT a pitfall of encryption?
Implementing a reliable and proven cryptography
50. True or False: Internal commands are built into the shell program and are shell dependent.
True
51. You are using the command line in Kali Linux. An encrypted file named topsecret.cpt is in your present working directory, and you used ccrypt to encrypt this file. You want to view the file’s plaintext content while leaving the file’s encryption intact. Which command should you use?
ccrypt -decrypt topsecret.cpt
ccat topsecret.cpt
52. In what way does OpenPGP encryption protect email communication?
Prevents attackers from reading an email’s contents
53. You and a friend have each set up Mailvelope to encrypt your email communications. What must you use to decrypt encrypted messages that your friend sends you?
Your private key password
54. True or False: A whole branch of hacking – Reverse Engineering – is devoted to discovering hidden algorithms and data.
True
55. Which is not a key takeaway of best practices of cryptography?
Do rely on your own encryption algorithms.
56. Which three (3) are true of digital signatures?
Ensures authentication, non-repudiation, and integrity
Uses hashing
Uses public key encryption
57. What is the recommendation to avoid the encrypting data at rest pitfall “Using hardcoded/easily guessed keys”?
Select cryptographically-random keys, do not reuse keys for different installs.
58. Which two (2) statements are true of the Hash function?
Maps data of arbitrary size to data of a fixed size.
Hashing provides integrity.
59. You are using the command line in Kali Linux. An encrypted file named confidential.cpt is in your present working directory, and you used ccrypt to encrypt this file. You just learned that the file’s encryption key is compromised, so you should change it for security purposes. Which command can you use to change the file’s encryption key?
ccrypt -x confidential.cpt
60. You need to send your coworker an encrypted message through email. For encryption, you will both use an OpenPGP-compliant program such as Mailvelope. Which key must you use to encrypt the message?
Your coworker’s public key